2. Which one of the following statements is correct:
(a)The U.N. Charter makes for compulsory membership.
(b)The U.N. Charter grants to all States a right to membership.
(c)The U.N. Membership is conditional and limited.
(d)The U.N. Charter does not make any distinction between the original and subsequent members.✓
Answer & explanation
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The U.N. Charter, adopted in 1945, does not distinguish between original members and those admitted later. All members, whether original or subsequent, possess equal rights and obligations under the Charter.
June 2009
5. The Monistic Theory is associated by:
(a)Oppenheim
(b)Brownlie
(c)Kelsen✓
(d)Brierly
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The Monistic Theory, which proposes that international and municipal laws form a unified legal order, is most famously associated with Hans Kelsen.
December 2009
3. Who said 'International Law is the vanishing point of jurisprudence'?
(a)Austin
(b)Holland✓
(c)Kelsen
(d)Bentham
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Holland criticized international law’s enforceability, calling it the "vanishing point of jurisprudence," suggesting it lacks the enforcement characteristic central to municipal law.
June 2010Match the lists
6. Match the statement in List-I with its author in List-II:
Codes:
(a)A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4✓
(b)A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
(c)A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(d)A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
June 2010
A by John Austin, who denied international law as true law.
B by William Blackstone, integrating customary international law into common law.
C by Michael Akehurst, who challenged the necessity of opinio juris as a precondition.
D by Hersch Lauterpacht, recognizing binding potential in certain General Assembly resolutions.
1. Human Rights Commission was discarded in 2006 and its successor is:
(a)Human Rights Committee
(b)Human Rights Council✓
(c)International Committee of Red Cross
(d)Amnesty International
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: In 2006, the Human Rights Commission was replaced by the Human Rights Council as the UN’s primary human rights body.
June 2011Assertion–Reason
3. Assertion (A): International law is generally not enforceable.
Reason (R): International law is generally observed by States in practice.
Options:
(a)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b)Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)✓
(c)(A) is true, but (R) is false
(d)(A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (b)
Explanation:
International law lacks a centralized enforcement system like national courts or police, making it generally unenforceable in a strict sense. However, most states comply with it voluntarily due to diplomatic relations, reciprocity, and maintaining their international standing. While both statements are true, the reason does not directly explain the assertion's lack of enforceability.
June 2011
5. According to proponents of dualism, both international law and municipal law differ in terms of:
Options:
(a)1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b)2, 3 and 4 are correct
(c)1 and 2 are correct✓
(d)2 and 4 are correct
Where:
Terms of their subjects
Terms of their basis
Terms of binding nature
Terms of their existence
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Dualists argue that international law and municipal (domestic) law are separate systems because:
Their subjects differ — International law governs states and international organizations, while municipal law applies to individuals and private entities.
Their basis differs — International law is derived from treaties and customs between states, whereas municipal law originates from a sovereign’s legislative or customary authority.
June 2012 Paper 3
1. Who stated that international law is not true law but 'positive international morality' only, analogous to the rules binding a club or society?
Options: (a) Oscar Schachter
(b)John Austin✓
(c)Louis Flenking
(d)Hans Kelsen
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (b)
Explanation: John Austin regarded international law not as real law but as positive international morality, analogous to rules binding a club.
June 2012 Paper 3Statements
4. Which of the following statements is true?
Options: (a) Nationality is the evidence of the link or relations of an individual with the State whereas domicile denotes de facto residence of an individual in a State with an intention to permanently settle there
(b)Nationality is an evidence of residence of an individual with an intention to permanently settle there
(c)Domicile denotes the link of relations of an individual with the State
(d)None of the above
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (a)
Explanation: Nationality signifies legal allegiance while domicile indicates actual residence with the intent to stay permanently.
December 2012 Paper 3
1. If International Law were only a kind of morality, the framers of state papers concerning foreign policy would throw all strength on moral argument. But as a matter of fact, this is not what they do. They appeal not to the general feeling of moral rightness, but to precedents, to treaties and to opinions of specialists. They assume the existence among statesmen and publicists of a series of legal as distinguished from moral obligations in the affairs of nations." This observation is made by:
Options:
(a)Frederick Pollock✓
(b)L. Oppenheim
(c)Hans Kelsen
(d)P.C. Corbett
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (a)
Explanation: This view was expressed by Frederick Pollock, reflecting the practical orientation of international law over moral reasoning.
June 2013 Paper 2
1. Who among the following said that the law of nations is "the body of legal rules which apply between states and such entities as have been granted international personality"?
Options:
(a)Fenwick
(b)Oppenheim
(c)Schwarzenberger✓
(d)Verdoss
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (c)
Explanation: Schwarzenberger defined international law as the body of legal rules applicable between states and other internationally recognized entities.
June 2013 Paper 3Match the lists
4. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:
Options:
(a)2 1 4 3✓
(b)1 2 3 4
(c)4 3 2 1
(d)3 4 1 2
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (a)
Explanation: These correspond to historical facts of sovereignty arrangements and colonial control.
September 2013 Paper 2
8. Under international law, which of the following cases affirmed that treaty obligations override municipal law provisions among contracting states?
Options:
(a)Navlila Incident Case
(b)Greco-Bulgarian Communities Case✓
(c)Panevezys Saldutiskis Railway Case
(d)Polish Postal Service Case
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Greco-Bulgarian Communities Case clarified that domestic laws cannot negate treaty commitments between parties.
September 2013 Paper 3Statements
1. "International Law is defined as Law of Nations or International Law is the name for the body of customary and conventional rules which are considered legally binding by civilized States in their relation with each other." This statement is attributed to:
Options:
(a)Charles G. Fenwick
(b)J.G. Starke
(c)J.L. Brierly
(d)L. Oppenheim✓
Answer & explanation
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The definition is credited to L. Oppenheim, who characterized international law as binding rules between civilized states.
September 2013 Paper 3Statements
3. Which of the following statements is true?
Options:
(a)Pacta tertius nec nocent nec prosunt means the UN Charter cannot bind non-members✓
(b)The General Assembly has the essential element of binding decision
(c)The Security Council is an advisory body only
(d)The Security Council may never take action involving use of armed forces
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The principle 'pacta tertius nec nocent nec prosunt' signifies treaties do not bind or benefit third parties (non-members).
September 2013 Paper 3Match the lists
5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:
Options:
(a)4 2 3 1
(b)4 3 2 1
(c)3 4 1 2
(d)4 3 1 2✓
Answer & explanation
Answer: (d)
September 2013 Paper 3Statements
6. Which of the following statements is true?
Options:
(a)A recommendation of General Assembly may be without true legal effect, it may have effects of a moral and political character✓
(b)A decision of General Assembly may be with true legal effect, it may not be without effects of a moral and political character
(c)A decision of General Assembly is immoral and unethical, if it is without true legal effect
(d)None of the above
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Recommendations by the General Assembly are generally non-binding but hold moral and political weight.
September 2013 Paper 3Statements
1. Which of the following statements are true?
Options:
There is no rule to determine when usage shall give rise to a custom.
Customary rules of International Law are diminishing and being replaced by treaties and conventions.
Treaty contracts are not direct sources of International Law.
International Law is a positive morality.
Codes:
(a)1, 2, 3 & 4
(b)2, 3 & 4
(c)1, 2 & 3✓
(d)1 & 2
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: There’s no definite rule for when usage becomes custom, customary rules are declining in favor of treaties, and treaty contracts aren’t direct sources of International Law.
September 2013 Paper 3
2. "The law of National or International law may be defined as the body of rules and principles of actions which are binding upon civilized states in their relations with one another." This definition was given by:
Options:
(a)J.L. Brierly✓
(b)Torsten Vitel
(c)Hackworth
(d)None of the above
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation: J.L. Brierly provided this classical definition.
December 2013 Paper 3
2. Which of the following jurists regard the controversy "whether international law is a law" as a dispute about words and not things?
Options: (a) Lawrence
(b)Austin
(c)Hobbes
(d)Hart
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Lawrence considered this issue a semantic debate rather than a substantive one.
December 2013 Paper 3Assertion–Reason
6. Assertion (A): International law is not a law.
Reason (R): It lacks determinate superior political authority to enforce its rules.
Codes: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b)Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)✓
(c)(A) is true, but (R) is false
(d)(A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: While both statements can hold, the lack of superior authority isn't the only factor determining whether something qualifies as 'law'.
June 2014 Paper 2Assertion–Reason
1. Assertion (A): According to John Austin, international law is not true law but merely international morality.
Reason (R): Three elements in Austin's definition of law — command of a sovereign, duty of inferiors, and sanction for breach — are absent in international law.
Codes: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b)Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)
(c)(A) is true, but (R) is false✓
(d)(A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: International law lacks the sovereign command structure in Austin's theory, though it does regulate state behavior.
June 2014 Paper 2
2. "International law is international morality, ethics, or convention in a social sense, distinct from enforceable law" was said by:
Options: (a) Hobbes
(b)Pufendorf
(c)Bentham✓
(d)Kelsen
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Bentham considered international law as a set of moral and social conventions, not enforceable rules.
June 2014 Paper 3
1. "Form of rules accepted by civilized states as determining their conduct towards each other and each other's subjects, is defined as international law" was held in:
Options:
(a)S.S. Lotus case
(b)West Rand Central Gold Mining Co. v. King✓
(c)Queen v. Keyn
(d)L. Oppenheim
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: In this case, the Privy Council recognized the accepted norms among states as constituting international law.
June 2014 Paper 3Statements
3. Which of the following statements is true?
Options:
(a)The community to be recognized as an international person should be organised
(b)Control over definite territory is desirable
(c)Control over territory must be permanent
(d)The community must be independent✓
Answer & explanation
Answer: (d)
Explanation: As per the Montevideo Convention, statehood requires independence along with defined territory, population, and government.
June 2014 Paper 3Statements
4. Which of the following statements is correct?
Options:
(a)Primary responsibility of international peacekeeping lies with the General Assembly
(b)The Security Council is a deliberative organ
(c)Members may refuse to follow Security Council advice
(d)The Economic and Social Council executes the responsibilities under Chapter-IX (Articles 55-60) under General Assembly supervision✓
Answer & explanation
Answer: (d)
Explanation: ECOSOC operates under the General Assembly’s authority to manage socio-economic and humanitarian issues per the Charter.
June 2014 Paper 3Statements
6. Which of the following statements is true?
Options:
(a)Mere counting of heads is enough to assess the authority of a General Assembly resolution
(b)Mere counting of heads is not enough to assess authority; legal weight depends on nature and consensus✓
(c)Mere counting of heads assesses the integrity of General Assembly
(d)None of the above
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The legal effect of a General Assembly resolution depends on broad acceptance, not merely vote tally.
December 2014 Paper 2Match the lists
1. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Code: (a) 3 2 4 1
(b)1 3 2 4
(c)2 4 3 2
(d)1 2 3 4
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
December 2014 Paper 3
1. "International law may be defined in broad terms as the body of general principles and specific rules which are binding upon the members of the International Community in their mutual relations." Who has given this definition of Public International Law?
(a)J.G. Starke
(b)Charles G. Fenwick✓
(c)Whiteman
(d)Torsten Ghl
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Charles G. Fenwick, a well-known scholar of international law, provided this classic definition of Public International Law highlighting its basis in binding general principles and specific rules governing state relations.
June 2015 Paper 2
1. "International Law or the Law of Nations is the name of body or rules which according to the usual definitions regulate the conduct of the states in their intercourse with one another." Who has given this definition?
(a)Hack Warth
(b)Charles G. Fenwick
(c)Gray✓
(d)Whiteman
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: This classic definition was given by Gray, a distinguished scholar of international law, emphasizing its role in regulating relations between sovereign states.
June 2015 Paper 2
3. In which case did Justice Gray remark: "International law is a part of our law and must be ascertained and administered by the courts of justice of appropriate jurisdiction as often as questions of right depending on it are duly presented for administration"?
(a)Nicaragua v. U.S.
(b)Paquete Habana case✓
(c)U.S. v. Schooner
(d)U.S. v. Canada
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: In the landmark Paquete Habana case (1900), Justice Gray affirmed that international law is part of U.S. law, to be recognized and applied by courts when appropriate.
June 2015 Paper 3
1. Who of the following has remarked that International law is a "Living and Expanding Code"?
(a)Judge Alvarez
(b)Lord Chancellor Sankey✓
(c)J.G. Starke
(d)Prof. Lissitzyn
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Lord Chancellor Sankey famously described International Law as a “living and expanding code,” highlighting its evolving nature in response to global developments.
December 2015 Paper 2
1. Who has stated that "As a matter of fact International law is neither a myth on the one hand nor a panacea on the other, but just one institution among other which we can use for the building of a better International order"?
(a)Prof. Louis Henkin
(b)J.L. Brierly✓
(c)J.G. Starke
(d)Oppenheim
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: This remark was made by J.L. Brierly, reflecting a balanced view of international law as a functional and evolving institution rather than an idealistic solution or an illusion.
December 2015 Paper 2Statements
4. Which of the following statement/statements is/are incorrect?
There are five prominent theories of relationship between International law and Municipal law.
According to Dualism Theory, law is a unified branch of knowledge.
'Monism' and 'Dualism' are diametrically opposed to each other.
Wright, Kelson and Duguit are prominent exponents of Dualism Theory.
Codes:
(a)2 and 4 are incorrect✓
(b)1, 2 and 4 are incorrect
(c)Only 4 is incorrect
(d)1, 2, 3 and 4 all are incorrect
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Dualism views international and municipal laws as separate, so Statement 2 is incorrect. Wright, Kelson, and Duguit were Monism proponents, not Dualists, so Statement 4 is also incorrect.
December 2015 Paper 3
1. Whose observations are these on the point that whether international law is a mere positive morality?
“If International Law were only a kind of morality, the framers of State papers concerning foreign policy would throw all their weight on moral arguments, but as a matter of fact, this is not what they do. They appeal not to the general feeling of moral rightness, but to precedents, to treaties, and to opinions of specialists.”
(a)H.L.A. Hart
(b)Oppenheim
(c)Edward Collins
(d)Frederick Pollock✓
Answer & explanation
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The observation about international law being treated more as precedent-based and specialist-guided than mere morality belongs to Frederick Pollock.
December 2015 Paper 3Assertion–Reason
6. Assertion (A): International law is not potent enough to restrain a powerful state that disregards public opinion.
Reason (R): Sanctions behind international law are weak.
Codes:
(a)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)✓
(b)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c)(A) is true, (R) is false
(d)(A) is false, (R) is true
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation: International law lacks coercive force against powerful defiant states, as its sanctions rely largely on collective will and public opinion.
July 2016 Paper 2Statements
1. "International law must be continuously developed by revision in content, expansion of scope and improvement of the means of securing compliance, so that it is kept in accordance with the changing needs of the international community." This statement is made by:
(a)Strake
(b)Edward Collins✓
(c)L. Oppenheim
(d)W. Frieman
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Edward Collins made this observation about the evolving nature of international law to align with the dynamic needs of the international community.
July 2016 Paper 2Assertion–Reason
3. Assertion (A): According to the exponents of Monism Theory, law is a unified branch of knowledge, whether it applies to persons or other entities.
Reason (R): In view of Monistic writers, in the ultimate analysis of law we find that man is at the root of all laws.
Codes:
(a)Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)✓
(b)Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c)(A) is correct, (R) is wrong
(d)(A) is wrong, (R) is correct
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Both statements correctly reflect Monism Theory and its foundation on human-centered legal analysis.
July 2016 Paper 3
1. Who has remarked that International Law is the vanishing point of Jurisprudence because in his view, rules of International Law are followed by courtesy and hence they should not be kept in the category of law?
(a)Prof. H.L.A. Hart
(b)J.G. Starke
(c)Louis Henkin
(d)Holland✓
Answer & explanation
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Holland considered International Law as the vanishing point of Jurisprudence because he believed it lacked enforceability and was based on courtesy.
September 2016 Paper 2
1. Who has criticized International Law by remarking: "... this pompous law of Nations which is so eloquent in books and silent in the cabinets of diplomats."?
(a)Emmanuel Kant✓
(b)Edward Collins
(c)H.L.A. Hart
(d)J.G. Starke
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Emmanuel Kant criticized international law as being eloquent in literature but ineffective in practical diplomacy.
September 2016 Paper 2
2. Who of the following is not the exponent of Dualism Theory?
(a)Triepel
(b)Anzilloti
(c)Hegel
(d)Duguit✓
Answer & explanation
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Duguit is not associated with Dualism theory; Triepel, Anzilloti, and Hegel are its exponents.
September 2016 Paper 3Assertion–Reason
1. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Customary International Law, if not contrary to the Municipal laws, shall be deemed to have been incorporated in the Domestic Law and shall be followed by the courts.
Reason (R): Sustainable development as a balancing concept between ecology and development has been accepted as part of customary International Law.
Codes:
(a)(A) is right, but (R) is wrong
(b)Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is the correct reason of (A)✓
(c)Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(d)Both (A) and (R) are right, but (R) is not the correct reason of (A)
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Customary International Law is considered part of domestic law unless it contradicts municipal law, and sustainable development has indeed been recognised as part of customary international law.
September 2016 Paper 3Assertion–Reason
2. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): The greatest shortcoming of International law is that it lacks an effective executive authority to enforce its rules.
Reason (R): Due to lack of effective sanctions, rules of International Law are frequently violated.
Codes:
(a)Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)✓
(b)Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c)(A) is correct, (R) is wrong
(d)(A) is wrong, (R) is correct
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Both statements accurately describe limitations of international law, and the reason (R) directly explains the assertion (A).
January 2017 Paper 2
1. Who has remarked that "it is both practically inconvenient and also contrary to the best juristic thought to deny its (International law) legal character"?
(a)H.L.A. Hart
(b)J.G. Strake
(c)Edward Collins
(d)J.L. Brierly✓
Answer & explanation
Answer: (d)
Explanation: J.L. Brierly stated that it is inconvenient and contrary to juristic thought to deny international law its legal character.
January 2017 Paper 2Assertion–Reason
2. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Read and choose the correct answer:
Assertion (A): 'Res Judicata', 'Estoppel', etc. are examples of the General Principles of Law recognized by civilized states.
Reason (R): In the case of diversion of water from Muese, the Permanent Court of International Justice applied 'Res Judicata' and 'Estoppel'.
Codes:
(a)Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not related to (A)✓
(b)(A) is correct, but (R) is false
(c)(R) is correct, but (A) is false
(d)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Both statements are correct, but 'Res Judicata' and 'Estoppel' were not applied in the particular case mentioned.
January 2017 Paper 2
3. Which of the following is not a "theory" propounded to explain the relationship between International Law and Municipal Law?
(a)Transformation Theory
(b)Delegation Theory
(c)Fiction Theory✓
(d)Specific Adoption Theory
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The recognized theories are Transformation, Delegation, and Specific Adoption. Fiction Theory is not among them.
January 2017 Paper 3
1. Which of the following pair/pairs is/are correctly matched? Give correct answer by using the codes given below:
J.G. Starke – An Introduction to International Law
Hackworth – Digest of International Law
J.L. Brierly – The Changing Structure of International Law
W. Friedman – The Basis of Obligation in International Law
Codes:
(a)Only 2
(b)1 and 2 both✓
(c)1, 2 and 3
(d)1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Only Starke's and Hackworth’s works are correctly paired with the mentioned titles.
January 2017 Paper 3
3. In International Law, a good example of the application of the principle of sovereignty is the 'Theory of Auto Limitation'. The chief exponents of this theory are:
(a)Only Anzilotti
(b)Anzilotti and Triepel both✓
(c)Salmond
(d)Max Huber
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Both Anzilotti and Triepel advocated the 'auto-limitation' theory of state sovereignty.
November 2017 Paper 2
1. In which of the following cases Judge Alvarez aptly remarked, "The fundamental principles of international law are passing through a serious crisis and this necessitates its reconstruction. A new international law is developing which embodies not only this reconstruction but also some entirely new elements"?
(a)Anglo-Norwegian Fisheries Case
(b)Aegean Sea Continental Shelf Case
(c)Conditions of admission of a State to the United Nations✓
(d)International Status of South West Africa
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Judge Alvarez made this observation in the case concerning conditions of admission of a state to the United Nations.
November 2017 Paper 2Statements
2. Which of the following statement/statements is/are not correct?
The words 'International Law' were first used by eminent British jurist Jeremy Bentham in 1780.
J.S. Starke remarked that international law is a "living and expanding code."
Prof. Oppenheim remarked that international law is the vanishing point of jurisprudence.
Holland viewed that international law is mere positive morality.
Code:
(a)Only 3 is incorrect
(b)1 and 4 both are incorrect
(c)2, 3 and 4 are only incorrect✓
(d)1, 2, 3 and 4 all are incorrect
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Statements 2, 3, and 4 are not correctly matched as per established academic consensus.
November 2017 Paper 2
3. Which of the following is not a theory of relationship between international law and municipal law?
(a)Specific Adoption Theory
(b)Delegation Theory
(c)Declaratory Theory✓
(d)Monism
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Declaratory Theory is not a recognized theory regarding the relationship between international and municipal law.
November 2017 Paper 3
1. Which of the following jurists deny the legal character of international law?
(a)Hobbes
(b)Pufendorf✓
(c)Oppenheim
(d)Starke
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Pufendorf denied the legal character of international law, viewing it as lacking obligatory force.
November 2017 Paper 3Assertion–Reason
5. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): It is a very important principle of international law that extradition for political crimes is not allowed.
Reason (R): Stoeck v. The Public Trustee is a leading case relating to non-extradition of political criminals.
Code:
(a)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b)Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c)A is true, but R is false✓
(d)A is false, but R is true
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: While non-extradition for political offences is a principle of international law, Stoeck v. The Public Trustee is unrelated.
July 2018Statements
1. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct?
Hobbes, Austin and Pufendorf subscribe to the view that law is "properly so called" when enforced by a superior political authority and hence deny the legal character of International Law.
Oppenheim has remarked that International Law is the vanishing point of Jurisprudence.
Holland subscribes to the view that International Law is really law.
Starke has expressed the view that International Law is a "Weak law".
Options:
(a)Only 1 is correct
(b)1 and 4 both are correct✓
(c)1, 2, and 3 are correct
(d)1, 2, 3, and 4 all correct
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Hobbes, Austin and Pufendorf deny the legal character of international law as lacking a superior enforcing authority. Starke calls international law a "weak law" because of the absence of a centralized sanctioning power. Hence, statements 1 and 4 are correct.
July 2018
2. 'Triepel' and 'Anzilloti' are the exponents of which of the following theory of relationship between International Law and Municipal Law?
(a)Monism
(b)Dualism✓
(c)Specific Adoption Theory
(d)Delegation Theory
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Triepel and Anzilloti are the principal supporters of the Dualist theory, which maintains that International Law and Municipal (domestic) Law are separate legal systems operating independently within their own spheres. Dualists believe both require specific transformation to have effect within each other’s domain.
December 2018
1. Which of the following is/are the chief exponents of the 'Theory of Consent' regarding the basis of international law?
(a)Jellinek, Fenwick
(b)J.L. Brierly, Kelsen
(c)Anzilotti, Triepel, Oppenheim✓
(d)Grotius, Vattel, Pufendorf
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The 'Theory of Consent' asserts that international law is binding because states consent to be bound by it. Anzilotti, Triepel, and Oppenheim are key proponents of this theory, emphasizing that the will of the states forms the basis of legal obligations in international law.
June 2019
1. Which of the following are the chief exponents of the ‘Theory of Consent’ regarding the basis of International Law?
(a)Anzilotti, Triepel, Oppenheim✓
(b)Starke, Smith, Brierly
(c)Fawcett, Jellinck, Pollock
(d)Kelsen, Hart, Edward Collins
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The Theory of Consent posits that international legal obligations arise only from states’ consensual acts, such as treaties or declarations. Its principal proponents include Anzilotti, Triepel, and Oppenheim, who emphasized that international law derives from state consent.
December 2019Statements
6. Which of the following statement/statements are true?
(a)In Nicaragua v. USA, the World Court by majority held that the sources of International Law are hierarchical.
(b)In Nicaragua v. USA, the World Court unanimously held that the sources of International Law are not hierarchical.
(c)In Nicaragua v. USA, the World Court by majority held that the sources of International Law are not hierarchical but necessarily complementary and interrelated.✓
(d)In Nicaragua v. USA, the World Court unanimously held that the sources of International Law are not hierarchical but necessarily complementary and interrelated.
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The ICJ (World Court) in the Nicaragua case held by majority that sources of international law are not hierarchical but complementary and interdependent.
December 2019
10. “The law of nations is that collection of usages which civilized states have agreed to observe in their dealings with one another.” This definition of International Law is given by Lord Coleridge in:
(a)Queen v. Keyn✓
(b)West Rand Central Gold Mining Ltd. Co. v. King
(c)S.S. Lotus case
(d)A.M. Luther Co. v. Sugar and Co.
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Lord Coleridge expressed this definition in Queen v. Keyn, a landmark judgment on customary international law and jurisdiction.
1. Give the chronological order (year wise) of these cases decided by the courts:
A. West Rand Central Gold Mining Co. Ltd. v. R. (1905)
B. Portugal v. India (1960)
C. Burkina Faso v. Mali (1986)
D. Mavrommatis Palestine Concessions case (1924)
E. Chorzow Factory (Indemnity) case (1925)
Choose the correct answer:
(a) A, C, D, B, E
(b) A, B, C, D, E
(c) A, E, B, C, D
(d) A, E, B, D, C
Correct chronological order — A (1905), D (1924), E (1925), B (1960), C (1986).
June 2020
8. The words 'International Law' were first used by:
(a)Oppenheim
(b)W. Friedmann
(c)Austin
(d)Jeremy Bentham✓
Answer & explanation
Ans. (d) : Jeremy Bentham coined the term ‘International Law’ in 1789.
June 2020
4. The view that international law consisted of precepts dictated to States by natural law was advanced by:
(a)Kelsen
(b)Vattel✓
(c)HLA Hart
(d)Salmond
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Vattel advocated that international law derived its authority from natural law principles binding upon nations.
June 2020Statements
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a)Hart’s analysis suggests international law is a set of rules, not a system.
(b)Absence of basic rules of recognition in international law prevents its systematization.
(c)International law remains a collection of separate rules.
(d)Many rules of international law rest on treaty, not custom.✓
Answer & explanation
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Many rules in international law are actually based on customary practices rather than treaties alone.
June 2020Statements
8. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a)Starke and Kelsen contend that there is both legislation and law enforcement in international law.
(b)According to Starke, legislation is provided by multilateral treaties in international law.
(c)According to Kelsen, sanctions are provided by the right of self-help and war in international law.
(d)Treaties and self-help can qualify as legislation and law-enforcement in a positivist sense.✓
Answer & explanation
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
In the positivist concept of international law, treaties can be considered legislation to some extent because they are binding agreements between states. However, self-help is not regarded as a legitimate mode of law enforcement or legislation in a strict positivist sense, as it often operates outside legal frameworks. Hence, option (d) is not correct.
June 2020
9. Who defines law as a body of rules for human conduct within a community, which by common consent shall be enforced by external power?
(a)Oppenheim✓
(b)Austin
(c)Bentham
(d)Friedman
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Oppenheim provided this definition in his authoritative works on international law.
June 2020
10. Which of the following group of jurists considered law as a command of sovereign enforced by superior authority, and hence did not treat international law as 'properly so called' law?
(a)Starke, Salmond, Holland
(b)Hart, Starke, Oppenheim
(c)Holland, Oppenheim, Hart
(d)Hobbes, Pufendorf, Austin✓
Answer & explanation
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Hobbes, Pufendorf, and Austin held that law requires sovereign authority, and therefore did not recognize international law as true law.
June 2020Statements
12. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct?
(1) On 16th June, 1987, the foreign secretaries of South Asian Regional Countries entered into an agreement on extradition.
(2) Hong Kong Pact on Extradition with India was entered in the middle of June 1980.
(3) India and Germany signed an Extradition Treaty on 27 June, 2001.
(4) India and France signed an Extradition Treaty on 24 June, 2002.
Choose the most appropriate answer:
(a)(1), (2), (4) only
(b)(2), (3), (4) only
(c)(1), (3) only✓
(d)(1), (2), (3), (4)
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The correct statements are:
(1) On 16th June 1987, South Asian countries did enter into an extradition agreement.
(3) India and Germany signed an extradition treaty on 27 June 2001.
Statements (2) and (4) are not correct as per official treaty records.
June 2020
7. Kelsen focuses on:
(a)Primacy of Pacta sunt servanda
(b)State behaviour being in conformity with customary international law✓
(c)Pacta sunt servanda being responsible for the growth of customary international law
(d)Pacta sunt servanda being independent of the principles of customary international law
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Kelsen emphasized that international law derives its authority from state practices conforming to customary law, not merely from pacta sunt servanda.
June 2020
9. Which of the following is correct?
(a)Pacta sunt servanda is an absolute principle
(b)Pacta sunt servanda covers unequal treaties also
(c)Pacta sunt servanda is not an absolute principle as it fails to explain the binding force of customary rules of international law✓
(d)Pacta sunt servanda explains the binding force of customary rules of international law
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Pacta sunt servanda is not an absolute principle, since it cannot independently explain why customary rules bind states. The binding nature of customary international law comes from consistent state practice and opinio juris (belief of legal obligation), not pacta sunt servanda alone.
June 2023
Who said, "International Law or the Law of Nations is the body of rules which regulate the conduct of states in their intercourse with one another"?
(a)Oppenheim
(b)Lauterpacht
(c)Brierly
(d)Kelsen✓
Answer & explanation
Answer: (d)
Explanation: This classical definition is attributed to Hans Kelsen.
June 2023Statements
'The grand function of the Law of Nature was discharged in giving birth to modern International Law.' Who made this statement?
(a)Oppenheim
(b)Henry Maine✓
(c)Holland
(d)H.L.A. Hart
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The statement is attributed to Henry Maine.
June 2023Statements
2. Which of the following statements are correct?
(A) In S.S. Lotus case, the PCIJ defined International Law as "principles which are in force between all independent nations"
(B) Professor Dias suggests that International law can never be called a 'Law'
(C) Lord Halsbury, when Prime Minister of England, remarked it was a misnomer to call international law as 'Law'; it should be better described as a branch of ethics
(D) Russel has defined International Law as "the aggregate of the rules to which the nations have agreed to conform to their conduct towards one another"
(E) According to Austin, International law is set and enforced by a political sovereign authority
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a)(A), (B) and (C) only
(b)(A), (C) and (D) only✓
(c)(B), (C) and (E) only
(d)(B), (D) and (E) only
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Statements A, C, and D are historically and jurisprudentially accurate descriptions of positions taken by notable jurists and the PCIJ. B is inaccurate regarding Dias' views, and E misrepresents Austin's definition.
June 2024Match the lists
2. Match the List-I with List-II
List-I (Titles of Books)
A. Public International Law in Nutshell
B. Law among Nations: An Introduction to Public International Law
C. Principles of Public International Law
D. Text Book on International Law
List-II (Authors)
I. J.L. Taulbee and G.V. Glahn
II. Martin Dixon
III. Thomas Buergenthal and Sean D. Murphy
IV. Ian Brownlie
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a)A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(b)A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II✓
(c)A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(d)A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
This correctly matches the titles to their respective authors.
June 2024
3. Who coined the English phrase "International Law" for the first time?
(a)Plato
(b)Cicero
(c)Aristotle
(d)Jeremy Bentham✓
Answer & explanation
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Jeremy Bentham introduced the term International Law in the 18th century in his work An Introduction to the Principles of Morals and Legislation (1780).
June 2024Match the lists
14. Match the List-I with List-II
List-I (Authors/Editors)
A. J. Crowe & K.W. Scheuber
B. Charlotte Lulf
C. Mathilde Crepin
D. Dieter Fleck and Michael Bothe
List-II (Titles of Books)
I. The Handbook of International Humanitarian Law (ed), OUP
II. Persecution International Refugee Law and Refugees: A Feminist Approach
III. Conflict of Displacement and Legal Protection: Understanding Asylum, Human Rights and Refugee Law
IV. Principles of International Humanitarian Law
Choose the correct answer:
(a)A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(b)A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(c)A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(d)A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I✓
Answer & explanation
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
This pairing correctly matches prominent authors with their respective works.
June 2025
5. "International law is the body of rules and principles of action which are binding upon civilised states in their relations with one another." — This definition is attributed to:
(a)Oppenheim
(b)J.L. Brierly✓
(c)J.G. Starke
(d)Jeremy Bentham
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b) Breirly
Explanation: Breirly, gave this classical definition highlighting its state-centric focus.
June 2025Match the lists
6. Match the following authors/editors with their respective books:
List-I (Authors/Editors)
A. Rainer Arnold
B. Vandana Shiva
C. Lenzerini Federico
D. Emily Crawford & Alison Pert
List-II (Books)
International Humanitarian Law
The Universalism of Human Rights
Biopiracy: The Plunder of Nature & Knowledge
The Culturalisation of Human Rights Law
(a)A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1✓
(b)A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(c)A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
(d)A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
Explanation: The correct pairing matches each author/editor to their widely cited book on international law and human rights.
June 2026 · Q89
Which one of the following jurist defined International Law as, "the body of rules and principles of action which are binding upon civilized States in their relations with one another"?
(a)Kelsen
(b)Oppenheim
(c)Brierly✓
(d)Anzilotti
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c) Brierly
Explanation: J. L. Brierly (in The Law of Nations) famously defined International Law as: "The Law of Nations or International Law may be defined as the body of rules and principles of action which are binding upon civilized States in their relations with one another."
Explanation: The Treaty of Westphalia (1648) is widely recognized as the beginning of modern international law-making treaties, establishing the sovereignty of states and new legal norms.
December 2009Match the lists
6. Match the following:
Options:
(a)A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1✓
(b)A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(c)A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
(d)A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (a)
Explanation:
December 2009
Pequete Habana case — about customary international law and non-combatant ships.
Dumbarton Oaks Conference — foundation for the formation of the United Nations.
Vienna Declaration, 1993 — focused on Human Rights reaffirmation.
Custom — recognized source of law in international jurisprudence.
1. Which of the following is a principal organ of the United Nations?
(a)Human Rights Committee
(b)Economic and Social Council✓
(c)International Labour Organization
(d)International Law Association
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The United Nations has six principal organs, one of which is the Economic and Social Council. The others are the General Assembly, Security Council, International Court of Justice, Trusteeship Council, and the Secretariat.
June 2010
2. India is not a party to:
(a)International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights, 1966
(b)International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights, 1966
(c)Optional Protocol to the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights, 1966✓
(d)Convention on Elimination of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW), 1979
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: India is a party to (a), (b), and (d) but has not acceded to the Optional Protocol to the ICCPR, 1966.
June 2010
3. A treaty, in principle, binds the states parties to it. A state becomes a party to the treaty by:
(a)Signing the treaty✓
(b)Ratifying or acceding to the treaty
(c)Enacting domestic legislation to implement the treaty
(d)Enforcing the treaty by way of conduct
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation: A treaty initially binds parties upon signature, though full binding effect typically follows ratification. Signing indicates intention to comply.
December 2010
5. In India, treaty-making is:
(a)A Legislative Act
(b)An Executive Act✓
(c)A Judicial Act
(d)Both a Legislative and Judicial Act
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: In India, treaty-making is an executive power under Article 73 of the Constitution, though certain treaties affecting domestic law require Parliamentary legislation for implementation.
June 2011
1. Boundary delimitation treaties are binding even on non-party states because they are valid erga omnes. The International Court of Justice held so in:
Options:
(a)The Asylum Case
(b)The Case Concerning Kasikili/Sedudu Island (Botswana v. Namibia)✓
(c)The Case Concerning the Gabcikovo-Nagymaros Project (Hungary v. Slovakia)
(d)The Anglo-Norwegian Fisheries Case
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (b)
Explanation:
In the Kasikili/Sedudu Island Case, the ICJ ruled that boundary delimitation treaties create obligations not only for the parties but also for the international community (erga omnes), as stable borders are a matter of general international interest, preserving peace and legal order.
June 2011
2. ‘A treaty is a contract between the Governments of two or more sovereign States.’ Lord Templeman said so in:
Options:
(a)The S.S. Lotus Case
(b)The Gulf of Maine Case
(c)James Buchanan & Co. v. Babco Forwarding and Shipping
(d)Maclaine Watson v. Deptt. of Trade and Industry✓
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (d)
Explanation:
In Maclaine Watson v. Department of Trade and Industry, Lord Templeman explained the nature of treaties as contracts between sovereign states, highlighting their binding nature under international law while clarifying that treaties require domestic incorporation to have legal effect within municipal legal systems.
June 2011Match the lists
4. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Options:
(a)A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(b)A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
(c)A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3✓
(d)A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (c)
Explanation:
A-2: Nuclear Test Cases established that unilateral declarations made publicly by a state can create binding legal obligations.
B-1: Island of Palmas Case was an early 20th-century arbitration on sovereignty.
C-4: The Advisory Opinion on the legality of the threat or use of nuclear weapons recognized international organizations' legal personality under international law.
D-3: Mavrommatis Palestine Concessions Case indirectly involved subrogation by allowing Greece to espouse claims on behalf of its nationals against a foreign power.
December 2011
2. Which of the following are essential elements of a valid international custom?
Options:
Constant and uniform state practice
Generality of practice
Jus cogens
Opinio juris
(a)1 alone
(b)3 and 4
(c)1, 2 and 4
(d)1, 2, 3 and 4✓
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (d)
Explanation:
A valid international custom must include:
Constant and uniform state practice over time.
Generality of practice by a majority of states.
Jus cogens norms where applicable, though not all customs are peremptory norms.
Opinio juris, meaning the belief that such practice is carried out of a sense of legal obligation.
December 2011Match the lists
3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Options:
(a)A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(b)A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2✓
(c)A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
(d)A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (b)
Explanation:
A-3: The S.S. Lotus case established the principle of sovereign equality and freedom in international law.
B-1: The Visaka case in India addressed human rights protections in the workplace.
C-4: The Reparations case clarified the UN's legal personality.
D-2: The Indian Gramophone Co. case determined the domestic status of international law in India.
December 2011Assertion–Reason
4. Assertion (A): General principles of law recognized by civilized nations enable the International Court to develop rules of International Law.
Reason (R): The meaning and scope of general principles of law are unclear.
Options:
(a)Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b)Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)✓
(c)(A) is true, but (R) is false
(d)(A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Both statements are true — general principles of law do guide international judicial bodies like the ICJ in forming legal rules. However, the uncertainty in defining these principles does not directly explain their utility in legal development, making (R) an unrelated explanation for (A).
December 2011
5. In the S.S. Lotus case, the Permanent Court of International Justice held that in the case of collision of two foreign ships:
Options:
(a)France has jurisdiction
(b)Turkey has jurisdiction✓
(c)European Union has jurisdiction
(d)Assembly of the League of Nations has jurisdiction
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (b)
Explanation:
In the S.S. Lotus case (1927), the Court held that Turkey had jurisdiction to try the case of a collision on the high seas between a French and a Turkish ship, establishing the principle that, unless a specific prohibition exists in international law, states may exercise jurisdiction.
December 2011Sequence / order
6. Consider the following judicial decisions:
Luther v. Sagar
S.S. Lotus case
Mavrommatis Palestine Concessions case
Mortensen v. Peters
The chronological order in which these decisions were delivered is:
Options:
(a)4, 3, 1 and 2✓
(b)2, 4, 1 and 3
(c)2, 3, 4 and 1
(d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Chronologically:
December 2011Assertion–Reason
Mortensen v. Peters (1906)
Mavrommatis Palestine Concessions case (1924)
Luther v. Sagar (1921)
S.S. Lotus case (1927)
Thus, option (a) correctly reflects their chronological order.
1. Assertion (A): Customs to have the force of law must be immemorial.
Reason (R): Custom represents common consciousness of people.
Options:
(a)(A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b)(A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c)(A) is true, but (R) is false
(d)(A) is false, but (R) is true✓
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (d)
Explanation: Custom need not be immemorial to have the force of law; modern customs can also acquire legal force. However, it is true that customs reflect the common consciousness of a community.
June 2012 Paper 2Assertion–Reason
2. Assertion (A): International Court of Justice has power to decide cases on the basis of equity.
Reason (R): Equity is one of the General Principles of Law recognized by Civilized Nations.
Options:
(a)(A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)✓
(b)(A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c)(A) is true, but (R) is false
(d)(A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (a)
Explanation: Under Article 38(2) of the ICJ Statute, the Court may decide a case ex aequo et bono (in equity) if the parties agree, and equity is indeed one of the recognized general principles of law.
June 2012 Paper 2Match the lists
3. Match List-I with List-II:
Options: (a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(b)A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(c)A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
(d)A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (a)
Explanation: Each listed case corresponds to its theme — the S.S. Lotus case on custom, U.N. Administrative Tribunal on res judicata, Western Sahara on UN resolutions, and Lawless on human rights.
June 2012 Paper 2
5. Which of the following is not a primary source of International Law?
Options: (a) International treaty
(b)Decision of International Court of Justice✓
(c)International Custom
(d)General Principle of Law recognized by Civilized Nations
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (b)
Explanation: Decisions of the ICJ are subsidiary means for determining international law, not primary sources, as stated in Article 38 of the ICJ Statute.
June 2012 Paper 3
2. Opinio juris sive necessitatis means:
Options: (a) Opinions of jurists is necessary evidence for determining rules of international law
(b)Opinions of jurists is not necessary evidence for ascertaining rules of international law
(c)The feeling on the part of States that in acting as they do, they are fulfilling a legal obligation✓
(d)None of the above
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (c)
Explanation: It refers to the belief of states that they are legally obliged to act in a certain way.
December 2012 Paper 2Assertion–Reason
1. Assertion (A): International Law Commission has initiated studies and prepared draft codes on diverse fields in international law.
Reason (R): International Law Commission was established under General Assembly Resolution No.1947 with an object to promote, progressively develop and codify international law.
Options: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true
(b)(A) is true, (R) is false
(c)(R) is true, (A) is false
(d)Both (A) and (R) are false
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (a)
Explanation: The International Law Commission was indeed established in 1947 to promote the progressive development and codification of international law and has since prepared draft codes across various subjects.
December 2012 Paper 2Match the lists
2. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Declaration/Treaty/Convention)
A. Universal Declaration of Human Rights
B. International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights
C. Convention on the Rights of the Child
D. Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities
List-II (Year of Adoption)
Options: (a) 1 2 4 3
(b)2 1 4 3
(c)4 3 2 1
(d)3 2 4 1
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (a)
Explanation: The Universal Declaration was adopted in 1948, Civil and Political Covenant in 1966, Rights of the Child in 1999, and Rights of Persons with Disabilities in 2006.
December 2012 Paper 2
3. Jus Cogens means:
Options: (a) Peremptory norm of international law
(b)Norm of international law
(c)Peremptory norm which does not permit derogation✓
(d)None of the above
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (c)
Explanation: Jus Cogens are fundamental, peremptory norms from which no derogation is permitted under international law.
December 2012 Paper 2
4. Which one of the following is a primary source of international law?
Options: (a) Decisions of International Court of Justice
(b)Resolutions of U.N. General Assembly
(c)General principles of law recognized by civilized nations✓
(d)None of the above
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (c)
Explanation: As per Article 38 of the ICJ Statute, general principles of law recognized by civilized nations are a primary source of international law.
December 2012 Paper 3
2. What are essential tests for the existence of International Custom?
Options:
(a)Uniform practice of States and longevity of time period
(b)Uniform practice of States and opinio juris sine necessitatis✓
(c)Uniform practice of States, longevity of time period and opinio juris sine necessitatis
(d)None of the above
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (b)
Explanation: International custom arises from uniform state practice accompanied by a belief that such practice is required by law (opinio juris sine necessitatis).
December 2012 Paper 3
3. In which of the following cases, Judge Alvarez evolved a doctrine that General Assembly resolutions are virtually binding upon States in a legislative sense?
Options:
(a)South West Africa Voting Procedure case, ICJ Reports, 1975
(d)South West Africa Voting Procedure case, ICJ Reports, 1955
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (c)
Explanation: In the Anglo-Norwegian Fisheries case, Judge Alvarez opined that General Assembly resolutions can have legislative influence over states.
June 2013 Paper 2Assertion–Reason
4. Assertion (A): International Law consists for the most part of customary rules.
Reason (R): Customary rules are the original and oldest source of International Law.
Options:
(a)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b)Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)✓
(c)(A) is correct but (R) is false
(d)(A) is false but (R) is correct
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (b)
Explanation: Though both statements are true, customary rules are one of several sources listed under Article 38 of the ICJ Statute.
June 2013 Paper 3
7. In which one of the following cases did the Permanent Court of International Justice hold, "it is a generally accepted principle of international law that provisions of municipal law cannot prevail over treaty obligations between contracting parties"?
Options:
(a)Navlila Incident Case
(b)Greco-Bulgarian Communities Case✓
(c)Panevezys Saldutiskis Railway Case
(d)Polish Postal Service Case
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Greco-Bulgarian Communities Case established that treaty obligations between contracting states supersede conflicting municipal laws.
1. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of codes given below write the correct answer.
September 2013 Paper 3Assertion–Reason
2. Assertion (A): Custom is a rule of conduct obligatory on part of those who are within its sphere, established by long usage and practice.
Reason (R): Rule of conduct are obligatory in any established sphere.
Options:
(a)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b)Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)✓
(c)(A) is true, but (R) is false
(d)(A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Both statements are correct, but R is a generic proposition, not a direct explanation for A.
September 2013 Paper 3
5. In which of the following cases did the International Court of Justice deny the existence of a customary rule?
Options:
(a)North Sea Continental Shelf case
(b)The Lotus case
(c)Both of the above✓
(d)None of the above
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: In both cases, the ICJ declined to recognize the existence of the customary rule claimed.
December 2013 Paper 3
3. What should be the order of the use of material sources of International Law?
Options:
Treaties and Conventions
Customs
General principles of law recognized by civilized states
Judicial decisions and juristic opinions as subsidiary means
Codes: (a) 4, 3, 2, 1
(b)2, 3, 1, 4
(c)4, 2, 1, 3
(d)1, 2, 3, 4✓
Answer & explanation
Answer: (d)
Explanation: As per Article 38 of the ICJ Statute — treaties, customs, general principles, then subsidiary sources.
December 2013 Paper 3
4. Which Article of the Statute of the International Court of Justice clarifies that its decisions have no binding force except between the parties and in respect of that particular case?
Options: (a) Article 60
(b)Article 59✓
(c)Article 68
(d)Article 38(1)
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 59 ICJ Statute limits binding force to parties involved in the case.
June 2014 Paper 2Match the lists
3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:
Codes: (a) 2 1 4 3
(b)1 2 4 3
(c)1 2 3 4
(d)4 2 1 3
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation: A→2, B→1, C→4, D→3
June 2014 Paper 3Assertion–Reason
2. Assertion (A): International convention is the most important source of law.
Reason (R): International convention has generic wisdom.
Codes:
(a)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b)Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)✓
(c)(A) is true, but (R) is false
(d)(A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: While conventions are crucial, international law draws from multiple sources including customs and general principles.
December 2014 Paper 2Match the lists
3. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Code: (a) 1 2 3 4
(b)2 3 4 1
(c)3 4 1 2
(d)4 1 3 2✓
Answer & explanation
Answer: (d)
December 2014 Paper 2Statements
4. Statement-I: Subject to rules of jus cogens, local customary law can supplement or derogate from general custom.
Statement-II: International law does not recognise the concept of local custom.
Code: (a) Both statements are true and II explains I
(b)Both statements are true but II does not explain I
(c)Statement-I is true, but Statement-II is false✓
(d)Statement-I is false, but Statement-II is true
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Local customary laws may supplement international law provided they do not contravene jus cogens, and international law recognises local custom in context.
June 2015 Paper 2
2. In which of the following cases did the Permanent Court of International Justice apply the general principle of subrogation?
(a)Chorzow Factory (Indemnity Case)
(b)Case Concerning the Temple of Preah Vihear
(c)Barcelona Traction Case
(d)Mavrommatis Palestine Concessions Case✓
Answer & explanation
Answer: (d)
Explanation: In the Mavrommatis Palestine Concessions Case (1923), the Permanent Court applied the principle of subrogation, allowing a state to espouse a claim on behalf of one of its nationals against another state.
June 2015 Paper 2Assertion–Reason
6. Assertion (A): International customs used to be the most important source of international law in the past.
Reason (R): The development of custom is very slow and compared to it, rapid changes are made through treaties.
Codes:
(a)Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b)Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)✓
(c)(A) is true, but (R) is false
(d)(A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: While it is true that international customs were historically a principal source of international law, and that custom develops slowly compared to treaties, the reason given isn’t a direct explanation for customs being the primary source historically — hence (b) is correct.
June 2015 Paper 3Statements
2. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
Long duration is an essential element for International Custom.
The custom should be completely uniform and consistent to be an International Custom.
In an International Custom, universality of practice is not necessary; the practice should have been generally observed or repeated by numerous states.
Opinio Juris is present, meaning customary practice must be recognized as legally binding by international law.
Codes:
(a)Only 1 is incorrect
(b)Only 1 and 2 are incorrect✓
(c)2, 3 and 4 are incorrect
(d)1, 2, 3, 4 all are incorrect
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect because long duration is not strictly essential; consistency and general acceptance matter more. Statement 2 is also incorrect as absolute uniformity isn't required, just substantial consistency. Statements 3 and 4 are correct.
June 2015 Paper 3Match the lists
3. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer:
Code:
(a)4 3 2 1✓
(b)3 2 4 1
(c)4 3 1 2
(d)2 4 3 1
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The correct case-topic mapping follows established precedents from international law jurisprudence and historical rulings.
December 2015 Paper 2
2. Which one of the following sources of International Law is not mentioned in Article 38 of the statute of the International Court of Justice but has now become a well-recognized source?
(a)International conventions
(b)General Principles of Law Recognised by Civilized Nations
(c)Decisions of Judicial or Arbitral Tribunals and Juristic Works
(d)Decisions or Determinations of the Organs of International Institutions✓
Answer & explanation
Answer: (d)
Explanation: While Article 38 lists treaties, customs, general principles of law, and judicial decisions and scholarly writings, the decisions of organs of international institutions have gained recognition over time as influential, though not originally enumerated.
December 2015 Paper 2Statements
3. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct?
Custom is the oldest and original source of International law as well as of law in general.
In Barcelona Traction case, the International Court applied the general rule of subrogation.
In Chorzow Factory (Indemnity) case the Permanent Court of Justice ruled that International law is based on justice, equity and good conscience.
In Nicaragua v. U.S.A. the Court held that the sources of International law are not hierarchical but complementary and interrelated.
Codes:
(a)Only 1 is correct
(b)1, 2 and 3 are correct
(c)1 and 4 are both correct✓
(d)1, 2, 3 and 4 all are correct
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Statement 1 and 4 are correct. Barcelona Traction case did not primarily involve subrogation. The Chorzow Factory case emphasized restitution, not directly the justice-equity-good conscience principle.
December 2015 Paper 3Statements
2. Which of the following statements is/are not correct?
Principle of law recognised by domestic law of a large number of states automatically becomes a principle of International Law.
Article 38(1)(c) of ICJ Statute lists “General Principles of Law Recognised by Civilized States” as the second source of international law.
General principles include only substantive principles provided they have general recognition.
Development of such principles as a source of law has weakened positivism.
Codes:
(a)Only 2 is incorrect
(b)Both 2 and 3 are incorrect✓
(c)1, 2 and 3 are incorrect
(d)1, 3 and 4 are incorrect
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 38(1)(c) lists it as the third, not second, source, and general principles are not limited to substantive principles.
July 2016 Paper 2Statements
2. Which of the following statements is/are not correct?
Decisions or determinations of the organs of international institutions do not find mention in Article 38 of the Statute of the International Court of Justice.
West Rand Central Gold Mining Company Ltd. v. R. is related to general principles of law recognized by civilized states.
Frontier Dispute (Burkina Faso v. Mali) is a case related to international customs as a source of law.
The importance of the works of jurists has been stressed by Justice Gray in the Barcelona Traction case.
Codes:
(a)Only 1, 2 and 3 are not correct
(b)Only 2, 3 and 4 are not correct✓
(c)Only 3 and 4 are not correct
(d)1, 2, 3 and 4 all are not correct
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct as decisions of international institutions do not feature in Article 38. Statement 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect for the reasons stated in the explanation.
July 2016 Paper 3
2. In which of the following cases did the World Court by majority take the view that the sources of international law are not hierarchical but are necessarily complementary and interrelated?
(a)Nicaragua v. U.S.A.✓
(b)North Sea Continental Shelf case
(c)Barcelona Traction case
(d)Frontier Dispute (Burkina Faso v. Mali)
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The ICJ held in Nicaragua v. USA that the sources of international law are complementary rather than hierarchical.
September 2016 Paper 2Match the lists
3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes below:
Codes:
(a)1 2 3 4
(b)4 3 2 1
(c)2 4 1 3✓
(d)3 1 4 2
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The correct matches are: A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3.
September 2016 Paper 3Statements
3. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct?
Article 38 of the Statute of the Permanent Court of International Justice mentions only 4 sources of International law.
Right of passage over Indian Territory Case (Portugal v. India) was decided by the International Court of Justice based upon General Principles of Law recognised by Civilised States.
Decisions or determinations of the organs of the International Institutions do not find mention in Article 38 of the Statute of the International Court but have become a recognised source of International Law.
In Chorzow Factory (Indemnity) case the Permanent Court of Justice applied the principle of subrogation.
Codes:
(a)Only (1) is correct
(b)Only (2), (3) and (4) are correct
(c)Only (1) and (3) are correct✓
(d)(1), (2), (3) and (4) all are correct
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Article 38 lists four formal sources. Right of Passage was based on treaty obligations, not general principles, while decisions of international organs, though unlisted in Article 38, are increasingly treated as law sources.
January 2017 Paper 3
2. In which of the following cases did the International Court of Justice point out that when two states follow a practice repeatedly over a long time, it becomes a binding customary rule?
(a)West Rand Central Gold Mining Co. Ltd. v. R.
(b)South West Africa Case
(c)Right of Passage over Indian Territory (Portugal v. India)✓
(d)North Sea Continental Shelf Case
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: In the Right of Passage case (1960), ICJ emphasized that consistent practice by states can form binding customary rules.
November 2017 Paper 3
2. In which of the following cases did the World Court, by majority, take the view that the sources of law are hierarchical but necessarily complementary and interrelated?
(a)Nicaragua v. USA✓
(b)Frontier Dispute (Burkina Faso v. Mali)
(c)Portugal v. India
(d)Temple of Preah Vihear Case
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation: In the 1986 Nicaragua v. USA case, the ICJ held that sources of international law are hierarchical yet complementary.
December 2018Assertion–Reason
2. In the Asylum Case, what did the International Court of Justice state about the requirement for a rule of customary law to be established?
(a)Both the assertion and reason are correct, and reason is the correct explanation.✓
(b)Both are correct, but reason is not the correct explanation.
(c)Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d)Assertion is false but reason is true.
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation: In the Asylum case, the ICJ clarified that for a customary rule to exist, it must be based on constant and uniform usage practiced by states in question. This requirement is also reflected in Article 38 of the ICJ Statute, which recognizes customary international law as evidence of a general practice accepted as law.
June 2019Assertion–Reason
2. Read both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Article 38 of the Statute of the International Court of Justice lists international conventions—whether general or particular—that establish rules expressly recognized by contesting states as the first source of international law.
Reason (R): In the modern period, international treaties are the most important source of international law.
Options:
(a)Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)✓
(b)Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c)(A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d)(A) is wrong but (R) is correct
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Article 38(1)(a) ICJ Statute indeed places international conventions (treaties) as the first listed source when states explicitly recognize them
And it's true that, in modern international law, treaties are the dominant legal source. They codify obligations consensually accepted by states. Thus, (R) explains precisely why conventions hold primacy in Article 38.
December 2019Assertion–Reason
3. Assertion-Reason MCQ
Assertion (A): Subject of rules of Jus Cogens, local customary law can supplement or derogate from general custom.
Reason (R): International law does not recognize the concept of local custom.
Choose the correct option:
(a)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b)Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c)(A) is true, but (R) is false✓
(d)(A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Jus Cogens norms are peremptory norms of international law from which no derogation is permitted. However, international law does recognize local customary law provided it’s consistent with international obligations.
June 2020
10. Which provision of ICJ Statute lists ‘General Principles of Law Recognized by Civilised States’ as a source?
(a)Article 38(a)
(b)Para (1)(c) of Article 38✓
(c)Article 38(b)
(d)Para (3)(c) of Article 38
Answer & explanation
Ans. (b) : Article 38(1)(c) of ICJ Statute recognises General Principles of Law recognised by civilised nations as the third source of international law.
June 2020
2. Pacata Terties Nec Nocent Nec Prosunt means:
(a)Multilateral treaties prevail over bilateral treaties
(b)Treaties are not binding in case of situations of emergency
(c)Only parties to an international treaty are bound by it✓
(d)The right of innocent passage cannot be thwarted by bilateral treaties
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The phrase means “neither harm nor benefit third parties.” In international law, treaties bind only the parties to them, and third parties are neither harmed nor benefitted unless they consent.
June 2020
4. “General principles of law recognized by civilized states” as a source of international law has been applied in which case?
(a)Corfu Channel case
(b)Asylum case
(c)Mavrommatis Palestine Concessions case✓
(d)Reparations case
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The Mavrommatis Palestine Concessions case applied general principles of law recognized by civilized states, as referred in Article 38(1)(c) of the ICJ Statute.
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:
The binding force of international law is based on the supreme fundamental norm or principle known as Pacta sunt servanda. This means that agreements entered into by States will be respected and followed by them in good faith. This is a well established and recognised custom of international law. The customary principle of international law has now been codified and finds mention in Article 26 of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, 1969. The principle of Pacta sunt servanda is also based on the actual practice of the States. It emphasises the importance of the agreement entered into by States and regards them as the basis of international law. There is a view that to assert the binding force of international law is based only on the principle of Pacta sunt servanda is far from the truth. It fails to explain the binding force of customary rules of international law which are not based on agreement between States. The realisation that international customary law does not rest on agreements and that the tenet, Pacta sunt servanda is itself a rule of customary law, led to new formulations of the basic norm. Kelsen has decided on a formula which takes into account usage, as the fact which is the origin of the rules of international law - 'States ought to behave as they have customarily behaved'
June 2020
5. To which does the passage give primacy, pacta sunt servanda or the principles of customary international law?
(a)Pacta sunt servanda
(b)Principles of customary international law✓
(c)Both
(d)Neither
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Customary international law holds primacy because it reflects the consistent practice and legal obligations of states, even beyond written agreements. Pacta sunt servanda, while fundamental, arises as part of this broader customary framework.
June 2020
6. The literal meaning of Pacta sunt servanda is:
(a)Pacts are sacred
(b)Pacts are good servants
(c)Pacts need not be observed
(d)Agreements must be observed✓
Answer & explanation
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Pacta sunt servanda literally means “agreements must be observed.” It is a foundational principle of treaty law obligating parties to honour their agreements.
June 2020
8. The codification of Pacta sunt servanda finds mention in which Article of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, 1969?
(a)It does not find mention in the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, 1969
(b)Article 26✓
(c)Article 2
(d)Article 47
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The principle of Pacta sunt servanda is codified in Article 26 of the 1969 Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties.
December 2022
Article 38 of the Statute of the International Court of Justice enumerates which of the following as sources of International Law?
A. All international conventions
B. International custom, as evidence of a general practice accepted as law
C. The general principles of law recognized by United Nations
D. The general principles of law recognized by civilized nations
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a)A, B, C only
(b)B, D only✓
(c)B, C only
(d)A, B only
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: According to Article 38(1) of the ICJ Statute, the recognized sources of international law are:
International conventions
International custom as evidence of a general practice accepted as law
December 2022Statements
The general principles of law recognized by civilized nations
Judicial decisions and teachings of highly qualified publicists (as subsidiary means).
Recognition by the United Nations is not a source under Article 38, making option (b) correct.
1.Which of the following statements is/are correct?
A. Art. 2(4) of the UN Charter contains the prohibition of the unilateral use of force or threat by states in their international relations.
B. There are no exceptions to the above.
C. The UN Charter makes an exception to Art. 2(4) in cases of individual and collective self-defence as in Art. 51.
D. States may use or encourage the use of economic and political measures to coerce another state.
E. States have a duty to refrain from propaganda for wars of aggression.
Choose the most appropriate answer:
(a)A, B, D and E only
(b)A, C, D and E only
(c)A, C and E only✓
(d)B, C, D and E only
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Article 2(4) of the UN Charter prohibits threat or use of force in international relations, while Article 51 provides an exception for individual and collective self-defence. There’s also a duty to refrain from war propaganda. No blanket prohibition exists against economic and political coercion in the Charter.
June 2023Match the lists
2. Match List I with List II and select the correct option:
List I
A. Kyoto Treaty on Climate Change
B. International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members of their Families
C. SAARC Accord on Extradition
D. WTO came into force
List II
I. 1995
II. 1997
IV. 1987
Options:
(a)A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I✓
(b)A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(c)A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(d)A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Kyoto Protocol (1997), Migrant Workers Convention (1990), SAARC Extradition (1987), WTO came into force (1995).
June 2023Statements
5. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
A. Treaties may be terminated.
B. Treaties cannot be terminated.
C. Treaties may be terminated by (i) operation of law and (ii) by act of state parties.
D. Non-performance of a treaty is also a ground for termination and is provided in Article 51 of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, 1969.
E. Non-performance of a treaty is also a ground for termination as per Article 57 of the Vienna Convention.
Options:
(a)A, B, C and E only✓
(b)B, C and D only
(c)B, C and E only
(d)B and C only
Omitted
6. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. Uniting for Peace Resolution was passed in 1950
B. Uniting for Peace Resolution was passed by the General Assembly
C. Uniting for Peace Resolution was passed by the Security Council
D. Maintenance of international peace and security is the primary responsibility of the Security Council
E. Maintenance of international peace and security is the primary responsibility of the General Assembly
(a)A, B and D only✓
(b)A, B, C and D only
(c)A, B, D and E only
(d)A, B and E only
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Uniting for Peace Resolution was indeed passed in 1950 by the General Assembly. Article 24 of the UN Charter assigns the primary responsibility for the maintenance of international peace and security to the Security Council. Hence, statements A, B, and D are correct.
June 2023Assertion–Reason
7. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): Article 38(2) of the ICJ Statute states that "provision in Article 38(1) shall not prejudice the power of the court to decide a case ex aequo et bono if parties agree thereto."
Reason (R): Ex aequo et bono enables the court to decide upon considerations of fair dealing and good faith, which may be independent of or contrary to law.
Which of the following is correct?
(a)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A✓
(b)Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c)A is true but R is false
(d)A is false but R is true
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Article 38(2) indeed empowers the ICJ to decide cases ex aequo et bono by agreement, and R correctly explains this provision.
8. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Multilateral treaties which declare the established customary international law may bind even non-parties.
Reason R: Article 38 of the Vienna Convention makes an exception to Article 34 or 37 of the Vienna Convention.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Article 38 of the 1969 Vienna Convention indeed states that a rule set out in a treaty may become binding on third states as a customary rule of international law. This supports Assertion A. Additionally, Article 38 creates an exception to Articles 34 and 37 by allowing a customary rule to bind even non-parties if such a rule exists independently of the treaty. Thus, both statements are true, and R correctly explains A.
9. Which of the following is called the 'Safety Net' clause in International Humanitarian Law?
(a) Levee en masse
(b) Hors de combat
(c) Henry Dunant’s Clause
(d) Martens Clause
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The Martens Clause ensures protection in armed conflict for situations not explicitly covered by treaties.
June 2023Match the lists
List I
A. Rule of Specialty
B. Paquete Habana
C. Barcelona Traction Case
D. Nicaragua v USA
List II
I. Importance of the works of jurists
II. Extradition
III. Sources of International Law are not hierarchical but complementary
IV. Equity and Justice
Options:
(a)A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III✓
(b)A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(c)A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(d)A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
A-II: Rule of Specialty relates to extradition.
B-I: Paquete Habana established the importance of jurists' works.
C-IV: Barcelona Traction Case emphasized equity and justice.
D-III: Nicaragua v USA clarified that international law sources are complementary, not hierarchical.
June 2023Sequence / order
14. Which one of the following chronological sequences is correct regarding international legal instruments?
A. Treaty of Westphalia
B. Kellogg-Briand Pact
C. Brussels Conference
D. Convention on the Status of Refugees
E. Montevideo Convention
Options:
(a)A, B, C, E, D
(b)A, E, B, C, D
(c)A, C, E, B, D
(d)A, C, B, E, D✓
Answer & explanation
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Chronological order:
A (1648), C (1927), B (1928), E (1933), D (1951)
June 2023
15. The principle of Jus Cogens is incorporated in which Article of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, 1969?
(a)Article 25
(b)Article 37
(c)Article 53✓
(d)Article 63
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The principle of Jus Cogens — also known as peremptory norms of general international law or compelling law — holds that certain fundamental principles of international law are binding on all states and cannot be set aside by treaty or agreement. This concept is formally incorporated in Article 53 of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, 1969, which declares treaties void if they conflict with a peremptory norm of general international law.
16. With regard to extradition in international law, which combination is correct?
A. International law recognizes a general duty of states in extradition
B. International law does not recognize a general duty of states in extradition
C. Extradition depends on provisions of existing treaties
D. Countries may grant extradition without a treaty
E. Customary international law governs extradition
Options:
(a) A, B, D, E
(b) A, C, D, E
(c) B, C, E
(d) B, C, D
Answer: (d)
Explanation: International law generally does not impose a duty to extradite without treaty obligations; however, countries may extradite voluntarily based on treaties or mutual interest.
June 2024
13. Which of the following is not a source of International Law as per Article 38 of the Statute of the International Court of Justice?
(a)Judicial decisions (subject to Article 59 of Statute of ICJ)
(b)Writing of most highly qualified publicists (subject to Article 59 of Statute of ICJ)
(c)Community customary laws✓
(d)General principles of law recognised by civilised nations
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Article 38 lists treaties, customary international law, general principles of law, judicial decisions, and scholarly writings — community customary laws is not recognised as a source.
December 2024
3. Which of the following is a guide to the International Court of Justice to decide disputes submitted to it by State parties?
(a)Non-binding international conventions
(b)Principles of engagement laid down by the permanent members of the United Nations Security Council
(c)The general principles of law recognised by civilised nations✓
(d)Previous decisions of the International Court of Justice
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
As per Article 38(1)(c) of the ICJ Statute, the court considers general principles of law recognised by civilised nations.
June 2025Match the lists
7. Match the following legal maxims with their meanings:
List-I (Maxim)
A. Erga Omnes
B. Jus Cogens
C. Pacta Sunt Servanda
D. Rebus Sic Stantibus
List-II (Meaning)
Relation to all
Peremptory norm
Agreements are to be respected
Essential circumstances remain unchanged
(a)A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(b)A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(c)A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4✓
(d)A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
Explanation: These Latin maxims represent foundational principles in international law regarding obligations, treaties, and universal norms.
June 2026 · Q115Sequence / order
Arrange the following in chronological order of their enactment
A. The Anti-Hijacking Act
B. Diplomatic Relations (Vienna Convention) Act
C. Anti-Apartheid (United Nations Convention) Act
D. Genocide Convention
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a)D, C, A, B
(b)D, B, C, A✓
(c)C, B, D, A
(d)B, C, D, A
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b) D, B, C, A
Explanation: Arranging the given Indian enactments implementing international instruments in ascending chronological order of their year of enactment by the Parliament of India:
1. D. The Genocide Convention Act: Enacted in 1949 (Act No. 59 of 1949) to give effect to the Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of the Crime of Genocide.
2. B. Diplomatic Relations (Vienna Convention) Act: Enacted in 1972 (Act No. 43 of 1972) to give effect to the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations, 1961.
3. C. Anti-Apartheid (United Nations Convention) Act: Enacted in 1981 (Act No. 48 of 1981) to give effect to the International Convention on the Suppression and Punishment of the Crime of Apartheid.
4. A. The Anti-Hijacking Act: Enacted in 1982 (Act No. 65 of 1982) to give effect to the Hague Convention for the Suppression of Unlawful Seizure of Aircraft. (Note: Later repealed and replaced by the Anti-Hijacking Act, 2016).
Explanation: The Stimson Doctrine is a principle of non-recognition of international territorial changes executed by force. It declared that such changes would not be recognized as legally valid.
December 2009
5. The Atrantzazu Mendi case deals with:
(a)Human Rights
(b)Recognition✓
(c)Nature of International Law
(d)Peaceful settlement of disputes
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Atrantzazu Mendi case is a landmark in the law of recognition — dealing with recognition of governments and the legal standing of representatives appointed by them.
June 2011
6. An interim Government of Lomalia seeks control over certain funds belonging to the Republic of Lomalia. Lomalia is presently in a state of civil war, with no effective control. The UK no longer recognizes the government. In this situation, the Court can decide the case by relying on:
Options:
(a)The doctrine of de facto recognition✓
(b)The doctrine of de jure recognition
(c)The doctrine of rebus sic stantibus
(d)The doctrine of legality, effectiveness, and in marginal cases, recognition
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (a)
Explanation:
In situations of internal conflict where no government has effective control, courts and foreign offices often rely on de facto recognition — acknowledging a regime based on its actual control over territory and administration, irrespective of its legal legitimacy. De jure recognition pertains to lawful legitimacy, while rebus sic stantibus allows treaty withdrawal in changed circumstances, and legality and effectiveness doctrines are broader diplomatic doctrines not directly applicable here.
December 2011
1. In which of the following cases did the Court said that the distinction between de facto and de jure recognition is political rather than legal?
Options:
(a)The S.S. Christina case
(b)The Arantraju Mendi case✓
(c)The Tinaco Arbitration case
(d)Mighell v. Sultan of Jahore
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (b)
Explanation:
In The Arantraju Mendi case, it was held that the distinction between de facto and de jure recognition is primarily a political decision and not a strict legal classification. Recognition decisions depend more on political convenience and diplomatic policy rather than legal parameters.
June 2012 Paper 2
6. Which of the following cases relates to retroactive nature of the act of recognition of government?
Options: (a) Aksionairnoye Obschestro A.M. Luthar v. James Sagor & Co.
(b)Trendtex Trading Corporation v. Central Bank of Nigeria
(c)Central Air Transport Corporation v. Central Air Transport Corporation✓
(d)Nicaragua v. USA
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (c)
Explanation: In Central Air Transport Corporation v. Central Air Transport Corporation (1953), the issue of retroactivity of government recognition affecting rights and liabilities was directly considered.
June 2012 Paper 3
3. Which of the following cases supports constitute theory of recognition, namely, the act of recognition alone confers international personality on an entity purporting to be a state or clothes a new government with authority to enter into international relations?
Options: (a) The Arantzazu Mendi, (1939) ACP 256
(b)A.M. Luther v. James Sagor & Co., (1921) 3 KBP 532
(c)Tinoco Concessions, (1932) 1 UN Reports of International Arbitral Awards P 369
(d)None of the above✓
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (d)
Explanation: Recognition theories require distinction; while some cases support constitutive theory, none listed here directly confirms it comprehensively.
December 2012 Paper 2
6. "Recognition operates retroactively not to invalidate the acts of a former government, but to validate the acts of a de facto government which has become the new de jure government," has been held by the court in the case of:
Options: (a) Civil Air Transport Inc. v. Central Air Transport Corporation
(b)A.M. Luther v. Sagor & Co.✓
(c)The Arantzazu Mendi
(d)Gdynia America Line v. Boguslawski
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (b)
Explanation: In A.M. Luther v. Sagor & Co., the court held that recognition validates the acts of a de facto government retrospectively upon its recognition as the de jure government.
June 2013 Paper 2
2. The main difference between De-facto and De-jure recognition is:
Options:
(a)1, 2 & 3✓
(b)2, 3 & 4
(c)2 & 3
(d)1 & 2
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (a)
Explanation: De-facto recognition may be withdrawn and does not necessarily involve formal diplomatic relations, while De-jure recognition is full, final, and legal.
June 2013 Paper 3
2. Which of the following cases does not concern the judgment that a non-recognised State cannot sue in the courts of a State which does not recognise it?
Options:
(a)Russian Socialist Federated Soviet Republic v. Cibraria
(b)Guarantee Trust Company of New York v. United States
(c)U.S. v. Pink
(d)Bank of Ethiopia v. National Bank of Egypt and Liquori✓
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (d)
Explanation: The case of Bank of Ethiopia v. National Bank of Egypt and Liquori did not involve this principle, unlike the others.
June 2013 Paper 3Statements
5. Which of the following statements is correct about a de-facto government?
Options:
(a)Its origin and existence is contrary to the constitutional law of the State concerned and legality is challenged in International Law.✓
(b)Its origin and existence is in conformity with the constitutional law and legality is uncontested in International Law.
(c)It exercises control over a Foreign State.
(d)It has been forced to leave its State's territory due to enemy occupation or civil war.
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (a)
Explanation: A de-facto government arises outside constitutional legality and lacks uncontested international recognition.
September 2013 Paper 2Match the lists
5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:
Options:
(a)1 2 3 4
(b)2 3 4 1
(c)1 2 4 3✓
(d)3 4 2 1
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (c)
Explanation: These articles govern core functions and limitations within the UN Charter framework.
September 2013 Paper 2
6. Stimson's Doctrine of Non-Recognition relates to:
Options:
(a)Duty of non-recognition of some territorial acquisitions brought about in accordance with international law
(b)Duty of non-recognition of some territorial acquisitions brought about in breach of international law
(c)Duty of non-recognition of all territorial acquisitions brought about in breach of international law✓
(d)Duty of non-recognition of all territorial acquisitions brought about according to international law
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (c)
Explanation: The Stimson Doctrine prohibits recognition of territorial changes executed through force in violation of international law.
September 2013 Paper 3
7. Legal effects of recognition are:
Recognized State can sue in municipal courts of recognizing State.
Recognized State can claim possession of property situated within jurisdiction of recognizing State formerly belonging to preceding government.
The recognized State becomes entitled to claim sovereign immunity from being impleaded in municipal courts of recognizing State.
The recognized State acquires capacity to enter into diplomatic relations and conclude treaties.
Options:
(a)1 only
(b)1 and 2 only
(c)1, 2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2, 3 and 4✓
Answer & explanation
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Recognition confers legal capacities including suing, claiming assets, immunity, and diplomatic relations.
September 2013 Paper 3Match the lists
3. Match the following:
Codes:
(a)4 1 2 3✓
(b)1 2 3 4
(c)4 3 2 1
(d)3 2 1 4
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The pairs match the theoretical models accurately as listed.
June 2014 Paper 2
4. The Estrada Doctrine relates to:
Options: (a) Necessity of recognition
(b)Form of recognition
(c)No necessity of recognition✓
(d)Recognition is superficial
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The Estrada Doctrine holds that states need not formally recognize governments of other states, deeming recognition unnecessary.
June 2014 Paper 3Assertion–Reason
7. Assertion (A): Recognition of a state is not the same as recognition of its government.
Reason (R): Within existing states, governments change frequently and typically such changes don’t require fresh recognition.
Codes:
(a)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)✓
(b)Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c)(A) is true, but (R) is false
(d)(A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Recognition of statehood pertains to sovereign status, while government changes typically don’t alter this standing.
December 2014 Paper 2
2. Who is not the exponent of the Constitutive Theory of 'Recognition'?
Options:
(a)Hegel
(b)Oppenheim
(c)Hall✓
(d)Anzilotti
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Hall was not a supporter of the Constitutive theory unlike Hegel, Oppenheim, and Anzilotti.
December 2014 Paper 3Match the lists
3. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Code:
(a)2 4 1 3✓
(b)1 2 3 4
(c)3 4 2 1
(d)4 3 1 2
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation: This question assesses conceptual understanding of recognition types in international law: Constitutive theory makes recognition essential for statehood, Declaratory theory considers it acknowledgment of existing facts, and De Facto/De Jure relate to the degree and permanence of recognition.
December 2014 Paper 3
4. The Estrada Doctrine was propounded by whom?
(a)The Home Minister of Mexico
(b)The Foreign Minister of Mexico✓
(c)The External Secretary of U.S.A.
(d)The Prime Minister of U.K.
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Mexico’s Foreign Minister Genaro Estrada enunciated the Estrada Doctrine in 1930, emphasizing non-intervention in the internal affairs of states, particularly concerning recognition or withdrawal of recognition.
December 2014 Paper 3Match the lists
6. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Code:
(a)1 2 3 4
(b)3 4 2 1
(c)2 1 4 3
(d)4 3 1 2✓
Answer & explanation
Answer: (d)
Explanation: These landmark cases dealt with recognition of governments, acts of foreign states, and sovereign immunity, with their respective years carefully matched in option (d).
June 2015 Paper 2
5. Who has observed: "De Facto recognition is by nature provisional and may be made dependent upon conditions which the new entity has to comply. It differs from de jure recognition in that there is not yet a formal exchange of diplomatic representatives. De jure recognition is complete, implying full and normal diplomatic relations"?
(a)Lauterpacht
(b)Phillip C. Jessup
(c)Openhime
(d)Schwarzenberger✓
Answer & explanation
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Schwarzenberger elaborated on the distinction between de facto and de jure recognition in international law, noting the provisional nature of de facto recognition and its conditional application.
December 2015 Paper 2Assertion–Reason
6. Assertion (A): When a state wants to delay de jure recognition of any state, it may, in the first stage, grant de facto recognition.
Reason (R): There is no distinction between 'de facto' and 'de jure' recognition for the purpose of giving effect to the internal acts of the recognized authority.
Codes:
(a)Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b)Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)✓
(c)(A) is correct (R) is wrong
(d)(A) is wrong (R) is correct
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: While both statements are correct, the reason provided doesn’t explain the assertion. De facto recognition serves a temporary practical purpose without implying full legal endorsement, unlike de jure.
December 2015 Paper 3
3. Which one of the following is not a case on the point that there is no distinction between 'De Facto' and 'De Jure' recognition for giving effect to internal acts?
(a)Bank of Ethiopia v National Bank of Egypt
(b)Luther v. Sagor
(c)Civil Air Transport Inc. v Central Air Transport Corp✓
(d)The Arantzazu Mendi Case
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Civil Air Transport Inc. v Central Air Transport Corp case didn’t deal with the distinction between de facto and de jure recognition.
July 2016 Paper 2Statements
4. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
According to the constitutive theory of recognition, statehood or the authority of a new government exists prior to and independently of recognition.
De jure recognition is by nature provisional and may be made dependent on conditions.
The principle that there is no distinction between de facto and de jure recognition for the purpose of giving effect to the internal acts of the recognized authority was laid down in Luther v. Sagor.
De jure recognition is final and once given, cannot be withdrawn.
Codes:
(a)Only 2 is correct
(b)Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(c)Only 2, 3 and 4 are correct✓
(d)2, 3 and 4 all are correct
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct while Statement 1 is incorrect. Constitutive theory suggests recognition is constitutive of statehood, not independent.
July 2016 Paper 3
3. Who observed that the wide acceptance of declaratory theory is due to reaction against the traditional view of recognition as a purely political act and that there is a legal duty on states to recognize any community that has acquired the characteristics of statehood?
(a)L. Oppenheim
(b)Hans Kelsen
(c)Lauterpacht✓
(d)Anzilotti
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Lauterpacht asserted that recognition should be a legal duty when statehood characteristics exist.
September 2016 Paper 2Statements
4. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct?
There are four main theories of Recognition.
Anzilloti is an exponent of Declaratory Theory of Recognition.
Civil Air Transport Inc. v. Central Air Transport Corp. is a case on Retrospective Effects of Recognition.
Pitt Corbett is a Chief Exponent of Constitutive Theory of Recognition.
Codes:
(a)Only (1), (2) and (3) are not correct
(b)Only (2), (3) and (4) are not correct
(c)Only (1), (2) and (4) are not correct✓
(d)All (1), (2), (3) and (4) are not correct
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: There are only two main theories of recognition: Declaratory and Constitutive. Anzilloti is an exponent of Dualism, and Pitt Corbett is not known as a chief exponent of Constitutive theory.
November 2017 Paper 2
5. Which of the following cases are not related to "recognition"?
Civil Air Transport Inc. v. Central Air Transport Corp.
The Azanian Mendi case
Barcelona Traction case
United States v. Schooner Exchange
Code:
(a)Only 4
(b)Only 1, 2 and 3
(c)3 and 4 both✓
(d)1, 2, 3 and 4 all
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Cases 3 and 4 are unrelated to recognition issues.
November 2017 Paper 3
3. Who among the following viewed that there is a legal duty on the part of existing states to recognize any community that has in fact acquired the characteristics of statehood?
(a)Oppenheim
(b)Lauterpacht✓
(c)Philip C Jessup
(d)Anzilloti
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Lauterpacht held that states have a legal duty to recognize entities fulfilling the conditions of statehood.
July 2018
3. Which one of the following is one of the chief exponents of 'Constitutive Theory' of Recognition?
(a)Pit Corbett
(b)Kelsen
(c)Hegel✓
(d)Hall
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Hegel is a leading exponent of the Constitutive Theory of Recognition. This theory posits that a state or government does not exist in international law until it is formally recognized by other states. It stresses the legal importance of recognition as constituting statehood.
December 2018Match the lists
3. Match the items of List-I with List-II regarding India’s diplomatic recognitions and choose the correct answer:
A. India recognized China
B. India recognized Spain
C. India recognized Cambodia
D. India recognized Bangladesh
Options:
1st April, 1975
6th December, 1971
30th December, 1949
2nd May, 1956
Correct Code:
(a)1 2 3 4
(b)3 4 1 2✓
(c)2 3 4 1
(d)4 1 2 3
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
India recognized China: 30th December 1949
India recognized Spain: 2nd May 1956
India recognized Cambodia: 1st April 1975
India recognized Bangladesh: 6th December 1971
December 2018
10. Who among the following groups of jurists are the chief exponents of the 'Declaratory Theory' of Recognition?
(a)Hall, Brierly, Fisher and Pitt Corbett✓
(b)Hegel, Anzilotti and Oppenheim
(c)Hart, Austin and Bentham
(d)Fenwick, Kelsen, Fuller and Schwarzenberger
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The 'Declaratory Theory' of Recognition posits that statehood is a matter of fact, and recognition by other states merely acknowledges an existing situation. Its principal advocates include Hall, Brierly, Fisher, and Pitt Corbett.
June 2019Statements
3. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct?
Hegel is one of the chief exponents of the ‘Constitutive Theory’ of recognition.
Civil Air Transport Incorporated Co. v. Central Air Transport Corporation is a leading case on the retrospective effect of recognition.
De jure recognition is not final and can be withdrawn.
In Luther v. Sagor, it was held that there is a distinction between de facto and de jure recognition for the purpose of giving effect to the internal acts of the recognized authority.
Options:
(a)Only 1 is correct
(b)1, 2 and 3 are correct
(c)1, 2 and 4 are correct✓
(d)1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct as per classical doctrines and landmark cases in recognition law:
Hegel advocated the constitutive theory.
Civil Air Transport case dealt with retrospective recognition effects.
Luther v. Sagor distinguished de jure and de facto recognition in municipal law.
However, De jure recognition is generally final and not easily withdrawn; only de facto recognition is temporary.
December 2019
9. In which of the following cases was it held that there is no distinction between de facto and de jure recognition for the purpose of giving effect to internal acts of the recognized authority?
(a)Luther v. Sagor✓
(b)US v. Pink
(c)Russian Socialist Federated Soviet Republic v. Cirbaria
(d)Guarantee Trust Co. of New York v. US
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
In Luther v. Sagor (1921) the court ruled that for giving effect to internal acts, no distinction exists between de facto and de jure recognition.
June 2020
6. In which of the following cases was the rule about 'de facto' and 'de jure' recognition not applied?
(a)Bank of Ethiopia v. National Bank of Egypt
(b)Luther v. Sagor
(c)Bank of China v. Wells Fargo Bank & Union Trust✓
(d)The Arantzazu Mendi case
Answer & explanation
Ans. (c) : In Bank of China v. Wells Fargo (1952), US courts refused to apply the doctrine equating de facto and de jure recognition for internal acts.
June 2020Statements
6. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(1) De Jure recognition is final, whereas De Facto recognition is provisional.
(2) De Facto recognition can be withdrawn, but De Jure is irrevocable.
(3) De Facto recognition has retrospective operation like De Jure recognition.
(4) No distinction exists between De Jure and De Facto recognition in giving effect to internal acts.
Choose the correct answer:
(a)(1), (2), (4) only✓
(b)(2), (3), (4) only
(c)(1), (2), (3) only
(d)(1), (2), (3), (4)
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Statements (1), (2), and (4) are correct as per established practice. De Facto lacks retrospective operation — thus (3) is incorrect.
7 Read the passage carefully and answer the question that follows:
The acceptance of international law as law possess the problem of explaining its binding force and this is turn to raises question as to the authority of all law. Some writers have sought to demonstrate the binding character of international law from its derivation from natural law. But we have seen that natural law is nothing more than morality and that the existence of moral rules is no guarantee of the existence of corresponding legal rules. Such an argument shows at most that the rules of international law are morally binding not that they are legally binding. Moreover many legal rules are morally indifferent: morality may demand the existence of some rule without specifying what that rule should be. Such is the case in municipal law with regard to the formalities required for wills, contracts and conveyances, and in international law with some of the rules regarding title to territory and the limits of jurisdiction. The binding force of such rules can hardly be attributed to any moral characteristic.
June 2023Statements
3. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
A. Recognition de jure is final and cannot be withdrawn.
B. Recognition de jure is not final.
C. De facto recognition may be withdrawn.
D. Withdrawal of recognition by a state occurs when the entity ceases to be a state.
E. Retroactive recognition of a new government does not invalidate acts of the previous de jure government.
Options:
(a)A, C and E only✓
(b)B, C, D and E only
(c)A, B, D and E only
(d)A, C, D and E only
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a) 4. Who propounded the Estrada Doctrine?
(a) The Foreign Minister of Spain
(b) The Foreign Minister of France
(c) The Foreign Minister of Mexico
(d) The Foreign Minister of Malta
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The Estrada Doctrine was formulated by Mexico’s Foreign Minister Genaro Estrada in 1930, concerning recognition of governments.
June 2024Statements
1. Which of the following refers to "a clear and formal expression of recognition by a state through official communication or diplomatic statement"?
(a)Implicit recognition
(b)Collective recognition
(c)Explicit recognition✓
(d)Conditional recognition
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Explicit recognition is a formal and unambiguous statement by a state recognising another state or government, typically through official diplomatic communication.
December 2024Statements
12. Which among the following statements is generally understood to mean the essence of the Estrada Doctrine?
(a)Recognition of government is unnecessary once the state has been recognised✓
(b)Recognition of government is an imperative for recognition of state
(c)Recognition of government provides legality to a state
(d)State is a legal person under international law only if recognised by the United Nations
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Estrada Doctrine (Mexico, 1930) posits that recognition of governments is unnecessary as long as the state exists.
June 2025
11. The Estrada Doctrine dealing with recognition of states and governments is primarily related to which country?
(a)Spain
(b)Mexico✓
(c)Germany
(d)China
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b) Mexico
Explanation: The Estrada Doctrine, named after Genaro Estrada of Mexico, rejects diplomatic recognition of governments and supports non-intervention.
December 2025
3. The case for possession of Arantzazu Mendi before the House of Lords was between which of the following parties?
1.De jure Government of the United Kingdom and de facto Government of Denmark
2.De jure Government of Spain and de facto Nationalist Government of Spain✓
3.De jure Government of France and de facto Nationalist Government of France
4.De jure Government of Belgium and de facto Nationalist Government of Belgium
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: De jure Government of Spain and de facto Nationalist Government of Spain
4. Which of the following statements are correct?
A. Holland remarked that international law is the vanishing point of jurisprudence
B. Holland was an analytical jurist.
C. The Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties provides that a treaty may be binding on third States as well.
D. Grotius and Vattel were positivists
E. The International Court of Justice recognizes the sources of international law under Article
36 (1) (c) of its statute.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. B, D and E only
2. A, B and C only
3. A, C and E only
4. C, D and E only
Correct Answer: A, B and C only
Dec 2021/June 2022 · Q32
Which of the following doctrines is called as Doctrine of Non-recognition?
(a)Estrada Doctrine
(b)Hallestein Doctrine
(c)Franco Doctrine
(d)Stimson Doctrine✓
Answer & explanation
Answer: (d) Stimson Doctrine
June 2026 · Q114
The Constitutive Theory of State recognition has been advocated by which of the following jurist?
(a)Oppenheim, Anzilotti and Holland✓
(b)Oppenheim, Anzilotti and Hall
(c)Anzilotti, Hall and Fisher
(d)Hall, Fisher and Brierly
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a) Oppenheim, Anzilotti and Holland
Explanation: The Constitutive Theory of State recognition asserts that a new state becomes an international person solely and exclusively through recognition by existing states (i.e., recognition creates or constitutes statehood). Prominent jurists and advocates who supported this theory include Lassa Oppenheim, Dionisio Anzilotti, Thomas Erskine Holland, and Hans Kelsen. In contrast, jurists like William Edward Hall, H.A.L. Fisher, and J.L. Brierly were key advocates of the rival Declaratory (or Evidentiary) Theory, which posits that statehood exists independently prior to recognition.
June 2026 · Q116
Which of the following doctrine states that, "It is duty of a State to continue diplomatic relations with States without regard to revolutionary changes"?
(a)Tobar Doctrine
(b)Estrada Doctrine✓
(c)Stimson Doctrine
(d)Hallestein Doctrine
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b) Estrada Doctrine
Explanation: The Estrada Doctrine was formulated in 1930 by Don Genaro Estrada, the Secretary of Foreign Affairs of Mexico.
• Core Principle: It states that a government should continue diplomatic relations with existing states regardless of revolutionary changes or changes of government (e.g., via coups or revolutions). It posits that formally recognizing or refusing to recognize a new government constitutes an improper and insulting interference in the internal affairs of a sovereign nation.
• Key Distinctions from Other Doctrines:
o Tobar Doctrine (a): Proposed by Carlos Tobar of Ecuador (1907); advocates nonrecognition of any government that comes to power through extra-constitutional, revolutionary, or illegal means until democratic legitimacy is established. o Stimson Doctrine (c): Formulated by US Secretary of State Henry L. Stimson (1932); dictates the non-recognition of international territorial changes or treaties brought about by military aggression or the use of force. o Hallstein Doctrine (d): A West German foreign policy doctrine (1950s) under which West Germany refused to maintain diplomatic relations with any state that formally recognized East Germany (GDR).
4. Which of the following cases relates to nationality of an individual as evidence of the link of an individual with the State?
Options:
(a)Nottebohm case (Liechtenstein v. Guatemala), ICJ Reports, 1955✓
(b)South West Africa, Advisory Opinion, ICJ Reports, 1971
(c)Reservations to the Genocide Convention case, ICJ Reports, 1951
(d)United States Diplomatic and Consular Staff in Tehran, ICJ Reports, 1980
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (a)
Explanation: In the Nottebohm case, ICJ emphasized genuine link criteria between nationality and an individual for international claims.
December 2015 Paper 3
4. In which case did the ICJ hold that for granting nationality, there is no obligation if the person has no genuine link with the state and applied 'Effective Nationality' principle?
(a)Re Lynch Case
(b)Stoeck v. The Public Trustee
(c)Nottebohm’s Case✓
(d)Paneyezys Soldutisk
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: In Nottebohm’s Case (1955), ICJ upheld the effective nationality principle requiring a genuine link with the naturalizing state.
September 2016 Paper 3
4. In which of the following cases did Russel J. observe, "The question of what state a person belongs to must ultimately be decided by the Municipal law of the state to which he claims to belong or to which it is alleged that he belongs"?
(a)Winans v. Attorney General
(b)Nottebohm's Case✓
(c)Stoeck v. The Public Trustee
(d)Somerville v. Somerville
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: In Nottebohm’s Case (1955), ICJ ruled that nationality must reflect a genuine link to the state, decided primarily by municipal law.
January 2017 Paper 3Statements
4. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
"Subjugation" is a mode of acquisition of nationality under International Law.
Stock v. The Public Trustee is a case related to double nationality.
Articles 3 to 6 of the Hague Convention of 1930 provide for double nationality of married women.
"Cession" is a mode of loss of nationality under International Law.
Codes:
(a)Only 2 incorrect
(b)1, 2 and 3 incorrect
(c)2, 3 and 4 incorrect✓
(d)1, 2, 3 and 4 all incorrect
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect. Stock v. Public Trustee concerns inheritance, Hague Convention articles are 8–11 for nationality, and 'cession' relates to territory, not nationality.
November 2017 Paper 3Statements
4. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
In the Nottebohm case, the ICJ held no obligation exists for a state to recognize nationality unless there's a genuine connection.
In the Re Lynch case, it was held that a person without citizenship is stateless.
Nationality is the principal link between an individual and international law.
The Convention on the Reduction of Statelessness was adopted in 1959 by the General Assembly.
Code:
(a)Only 1 is correct
(b)1, 2 and 3 are correct
(c)2, 3 and 4 are correct
(d)1 and 3 both are correct✓
Answer & explanation
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Statements 1 and 3 are correct; the others are either incorrect or inaccurate in detail.
June 2019
4. In which of the following case was it held that if a person is not a citizen of any state, he will be called ‘stateless’?
(a)Nottebohm's Case✓
(b)Whicker v. Hume
(c)Winans v. A.G.
(d)Stoeck v. The Public Trustee
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
In Nottebohm's Case (1955), the ICJ examined nationality laws and circumstances of statelessness, determining conditions under which a person can be considered without nationality under international law.
June 2019Statements
5. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct?
According to Article 16 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, everyone has the right to seek asylum.
In 1967, the United Nations Declaration on Territorial Asylum was unanimously adopted by the General Assembly.
The Convention on the Status of Refugees, 1951 came into force on 24 April 1956.
In the Asylum case (Colombia v. Peru), the ICJ explained the distinction between territorial and diplomatic asylum.
Options:
(a)Only 1
(b)1 and 2
(c)1 and 3✓
(d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Statements 1 and 3 are correct:
Article 14 (not Article 16) UDHR deals with asylum rights.
The 1951 Refugee Convention came into force on 22 April 1954, not 1956.
Thus, only statements 1 and 3 are correct per options.
December 2019Statements
1. Which of the following statement/statements are correct?
Convention of Nationality was adopted in 1928.
Convention of Nationality of married women was adopted in 1957.
Convention on the Reduction of Statelessness was adopted in 1961.
Convention of Nationality of newborn child was adopted in 1938.
Choose the most appropriate option:
(a)1 and 2
(b)2 and 3✓
(c)1 and 3
(d)2 and 4
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Convention of Nationality of Married Women was adopted in 1957 and the Convention on the Reduction of Statelessness was adopted in 1961.
June 2020Statements
7. Which of the following statements are NOT correct?
A. Hague Conference 1930 adopted a convention on Nationality conflict.
B. Nottebohm case related to 'statelessness'.
C. On 7th Nov 1967, UN adopted declaration against discrimination of women.
D. 1961 Convention on Reduction of Statelessness came into force on 13 Dec 1965.
E. Convention on Status of Stateless Persons was adopted on 6 June 1960.
Choose:
(a)A, C, E only
(b)B, D, E only✓
(c)B, C, D only
(d)A, B, C only
Answer & explanation
Ans. (b) :
Explanation:
B: Nottebohm was about effective nationality, not statelessness.
D: 1961 Convention came into force on 13 Dec 1975, not 1965.
E: Convention on Status of Stateless Persons was adopted on 28 Sept 1954, not 6 June 1960.
June 2020Statements
5. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(1) When a State is defeated or conquered, all its citizens acquire the nationality of the conquering State.
(2) When a person gets nationality of one State in place of another, it is called 'substitution'.
(3) The Public Trustee case is related to statelessness.
(4) The General Assembly convened a conference in 1961 on reduction of statelessness.
Choose the correct answer:
(a)(2) and (3) only✓
(b)(1), (2), (3) only
(c)(1), (3), (4) only
(d)(1), (2), (3), (4)
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Only (2) and (3) are correct. Conquest does not automatically confer nationality, and while the 1961 convention exists, the statement about the Assembly convening the conference is inaccurate in wording.
June 2020
1. Nottebohm's case deals with Nationality by:
(a)Naturalisation✓
(b)Birth
(c)Resumption
(d)Subjugation
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The Nottebohm case (1955) dealt with nationality acquired by naturalisation. The ICJ held that a nationality must reflect a genuine link between the individual and the state granting nationality. The court rejected nationality obtained merely for convenience or through legal formality without genuine ties.
June 2024
15. Which of the following is undefined in the International Convention on the "Protection of the Rights of all Migrant Workers and Members of their Family, 1990"?
(a)Migrant worker
(b)Unorganised worker✓
(c)Seasonal worker
(d)Frontier worker
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The convention defines various categories of migrant workers including seasonal and frontier workers, but ‘unorganised worker’ is not defined under it.
December 2024
8. Under Public International Law, the Nottebohm case is of great relevance in relation to which of the given options?
(a)Tortious liability
(b)Cyber crime across borders
(c)Drug trafficking and money laundering
(d)Nationality✓
Answer & explanation
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Nottebohm case (Liechtenstein v. Guatemala) is a landmark judgment of the ICJ concerning the effective nationality principle in international law.
June 2025
9. Which of the following is a landmark case on the importance of 'nationality'?
(a)North Sea Continental Shelf Case
(b)Asylum Case
(c)S.S. Lotus Case
(d)Nottebohm Case✓
Answer & explanation
Answer: (d) Nottebohm Case
Explanation: The Nottebohm Case (Liechtenstein v. Guatemala, 1955) emphasized the concept of genuine link in international nationality claims.
December 2025
2. Which provision of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948 provides that
"everyone has the right to a nationality"?
1.Article 10
2.Article 15✓
3.Article 7
4.Article 21
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: Article 15
December 2024 · Q108
In the context of refugees, which of the following options provide the analogous Article of the EU Charter of Fundamental Rights corresponding to Article 3 of the ECHR?
(a)Article 3
(b)Article 4✓
(c)Article 5
(d)Article 6
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b) Article 4
31 Dec 2025 (Shift 1) · Q140Match the lists
Match the LIST-I with LIST-II LIST-I (Particulars) LIST-II (Year)
A. Entry into force of the UN Convention on the Status of Refugees I. 1967
B. Entry into force of the Protocol to the UN Convention on the Status of Refugees II. 1954
C. Second time when the UN High Commissioner for Refugees won the Nobel Peace Prize III. 1981
D. Formation of the UN Commission on Refugees IV. 1950
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
A. Haya De La Torre is associated with the concept of Asylum in international law.
B. Haile Selassie is connected with Recognition issues in diplomacy.
C. War to End All Wars refers to the creation of the League of Nations post-World War I.
D. Opinion of Qualified Publicists is a recognized source of international law under Article 38 of the I.C.J. Statute.
1. The theme of the 60th Anniversary celebrations of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948 is:
(a)Human Rights for all
(b)All Human Rights for all
(c)Justice and dignity for all✓
(d)Human Rights for Human dignity
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The 60th anniversary theme was “Justice and dignity for all” — emphasizing the link between human rights and inherent human dignity, reflecting the vision of the 1948 Declaration.
June 2013 Paper 3Assertion–Reason
Assertion (A): Under International law, extradition is mostly a matter of bilateral treaties.
Reason (R): There is no general duty of States in respect of extradition of criminals.
Options:
(a)Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b)Both (A) and (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)✓
(c)(A) is true, but (R) is false
(d)(A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (b)
Explanation: International extradition typically relies on treaties between states, and there’s no absolute customary international duty compelling extradition.
June 2015 Paper 3Assertion–Reason
5. Assertion (A): By the term 'Asylum' we generally mean the shelter and active protection extended to a political refugee by a state on their request.
Reason (R): Everyone has a right to seek and enjoy in other countries, an asylum from persecution.
Codes:
(a)Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)✓
(b)Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c)(A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d)(A) is wrong but (R) is correct
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Both statements are accurate. The concept of asylum involves offering shelter and protection to individuals persecuted elsewhere, and this principle is recognized internationally as a human right.
July 2016 Paper 3
4. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court clarify the distinction between 'expulsion' and 'extradition' following international norms?
(a)Mobarak Ali Ahmad v. State of Bombay
(b)Hans Muller of Nurenburg v. Supdt, Presidency Jail, Calcutta and Others✓
(c)Dharma Teja's case
(d)Ram Babu Saxena v. State
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Hans Muller case distinguished expulsion from extradition under international law.
July 2016 Paper 3Statements
5. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
By asylum we mean shelter and active protection extended to a political refugee from another state which admits him on his request.
Under Article 14 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, the right to asylum is recognized.
The International Court of Justice explained the distinction between territorial and extraterritorial asylum in the Asylum Case (Colombia v. Peru).
In 1966, the United Nations Declaration on Territorial Asylum was unanimously adopted by the General Assembly.
Codes:
(a)Only (1) is correct
(b)Only (1), (2) and (3) are correct✓
(c)Only (3) and (4) are correct
(d)(1), (2), (3) and (4) all are correct
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. Statement 4 is inaccurate as the Declaration was adopted in 1967, not 1966.
September 2016 Paper 3
5. The European Convention on Extradition entered into force on:
(a)13th December, 1957✓
(b)18th April, 1957
(c)18th April, 1964
(d)13th December, 1964
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The European Convention on Extradition was signed on 13 December 1957 and entered into force in April 1960.
September 2016 Paper 3
6. On 28th March, 1945, a convention on Territorial Asylum was adopted at:
(a)Geneva
(b)Caracas✓
(c)Paris
(d)Tokyo
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Convention on Territorial Asylum was adopted at Caracas in 1954.
November 2017 Paper 3Statements
6. Which of the following statements is/are not correct?
United Nations Declaration of Territorial Asylum was unanimously adopted in 1977.
Article 14 of the 1948 Universal Declaration of Human Rights makes it obligatory for states to grant asylum.
The ICJ explained the distinction between 'territorial asylum' and 'diplomatic asylum' in Colombia v. Peru.
The Convention on the Status of Refugees, 1951 entered into force on April 22, 1954.
Code:
(a)Only 1 is not correct
(b)1 and 4 are not correct
(c)1, 2 and 3 are not correct✓
(d)1, 2, 3 and 4 all are not correct
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Statements 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect; only Statement 4 is correct.
December 2018Statements
4. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
European Convention on Extradition was adopted at Paris on 13th December 1964.
The practice of non-extradition for political crimes began with the French Revolution of 1789.
On 16th June, 1987, the Foreign Secretaries of South Asian countries entered into an extradition agreement.
Facto v Laubenheimer is a leading case on non-extradition for political crimes.
Options:
(a)Only 2
(b)2 and 3✓
(c)2, 3 and 4
(d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The European Extradition Convention was actually signed in 1957, not 1964.
The practice of non-extradition for political crimes indeed began with the French Revolution of 1789.
On 16 June 1987, South Asian foreign secretaries agreed on an extradition pact.
The case cited is misattributed and not recognized as a leading authority; hence only 2 and 3 are correct.
December 2019Sequence / order
2. Mention the following decisions in a chronological order on Extradition:
Mubarak Ali Ahmed v. State of Bombay
Hans Muller of Nuremberg v. Suptt. Presidency Jail Calcutta and Others
Ram Babu Saxena v. State
State of Madras v. C.G. Menon
Choose the correct option:
(a)4, 3, 1, 2
(b)3, 4, 2, 1✓
(c)2, 1, 4, 3
(d)4, 3, 2, 1
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Chronological sequence:
Ram Babu Saxena v. State (1950)
State of Madras v. C.G. Menon (1954)
Hans Muller v. Suptt. Presidency Jail (1955)
Mubarak Ali Ahmed v. State of Bombay (1957)
June 2024Statements
4. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Asylum?
A. Article 14 of UDHR grants a right to asylum from persecution
B. Asylum also includes transfer of person wanted by an arrest warrant to the prosecution country
C. Granting of Asylum per se excludes any possibility of extradition
D. Extradition and Asylum are mutually exclusive
Choose the correct answer:
(a)A, B and C only
(b)A and D only
(c)B, C and D only✓
(d)A, C and D only
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Statement B is incorrect — asylum involves protection from extradition. Extradition and asylum are related but not mutually exclusive in all cases.
June 2025
1. Which of the following decisions are related to extradition?
A. Savarkar case
B. Abu Salem case
C. Castioni, re case
D. Meunier, re case
E. Paquete Habana case
(a)A, B, C only
(b)B, C, D, E only
(c)A, B, C, D only✓
(d)A, B, D, E only
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c) A, B, C, D only
Explanation: The Savarkar, Abu Salem, Castioni, and Meunier cases all address issues of extradition. Paquete Habana is a landmark case in international customary law regarding the treatment of fishing vessels, not extradition.
December 2025
5. Under which of its provisions does the Draft Convention on Territorial Asylum adopted by the General Assembly of the United Nations in 1974, recognize that the grant of asylum is a sovereign right of a State?
1.Article 1✓
2.Article 2
3.Article 3
4.Article 5
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: Article 1
December 2025Sequence / order
6. Arrange the following cases relating to extradition in their chronological order:
A. Soering V/s United Kingdom
B. Chitat V/s Canada
C. United States V/s Rauscher
D. Daya Singh Lahoria V/s Union of India
E. Kindler V/s Canada
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1.C, A, E, B, D✓
2.B, D, C, E, A
3.A, B, C, D, E
4.E, C, D, A, B
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: C, A, E, B, D
December 2023 · Q91Sequence / order
The Supreme Court of India remarked that "Extradition with foreign states is, except in exceptional cases, governed by treaties or arrangements made" in the case of
4. The Domestic Jurisdiction Clause is found in Article ------ of the U.N. Charter:
(a)Article 2(3)
(b)Article 2(7)✓
(c)Article 2(4)
(d)Article 2(6)
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 2(7) of the U.N. Charter states that nothing in the Charter authorizes the United Nations to intervene in matters essentially within the domestic jurisdiction of any state.
June 2010Assertion–Reason
5. Assertion (A): To promote and encourage respect for human rights is one of the purposes of the United Nations.
Reason (R): The Charter of the United Nations conceptualizes, substantiates, and spells out human rights which are to be promoted by the member states.
Codes:
(a)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)✓
(b)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c)(A) is true, but (R) is false
(d)(A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Both are correct. UN Charter Articles 1(3) and 55 outline human rights promotion as a UN purpose, and it conceptualizes rights for its members.
December 2010Sequence / order
3. Arrange the following international instruments in the order in which they were adopted:
The Charter of United Nations
Universal Declaration of Human Rights
International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights
International Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Racial Discrimination
Codes:
(a)1, 4, 2, 3
(b)2, 4, 1, 3
(c)1, 2, 4, 3✓
(d)1, 3, 4, 2
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
UN Charter — 1945
Universal Declaration of Human Rights — 1948
International Convention on Racial Discrimination — 1965
International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights — 1966
June 2012 Paper 2
4. U.N. Commission on Human Rights has been discarded and replaced by:
Options: (a) Economic, Social and Cultural Rights Committee
(b)Amnesty International
(c)Human Rights Committee
(d)Human Rights Council✓
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (d)
Explanation: In 2006, the UN Commission on Human Rights was replaced by the Human Rights Council to strengthen human rights mechanisms within the UN system.
June 2012 Paper 3
5. The Charter of the United Nations came into force on:
Options: (a) 26 June, 1945
(b)10 December, 1945
(c)24 October, 1945✓
(d)1 November, 1945
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (c)
Explanation: The UN Charter was enforced on 24 October 1945, commemorated annually as United Nations Day.
June 2012 Paper 3
6. A member of the United Nations which has persistently violated the principles contained in the Charter may be expelled from the United Nations by the:
Options: (a) Security Council
(b)General Assembly
(c)General Assembly upon the recommendation of the Security Council✓
(d)Security Council upon the recommendation of the General Assembly
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (c)
Explanation: Article 6 of the UN Charter allows expulsion by the General Assembly on the recommendation of the Security Council.
June 2012 Paper 3
7. The Judges of the International Court of Justice are elected by the:
Options: (a) General Assembly
(b)Security Council
(c)General Assembly upon recommendation of the Security Council
(d)General Assembly and the Security Council independently of one another✓
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (d)
Explanation: Judges of the ICJ are elected independently by both the General Assembly and the Security Council, ensuring balanced international representation.
December 2012 Paper 2
5. Which one of the following is not a permanent member of the U.N. Security Council?
Options: (a) U.K.
(b)U.S.A.
(c)Japan✓
(d)China
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (c)
Explanation: The five permanent members of the Security Council are U.K., U.S.A., China, France, and Russia. Japan is a non-permanent member elected periodically.
December 2012 Paper 3
5. The non-permanent members of the Security Council of United Nations are elected for a term of:
Options:
(a)Three years
(b)Five years
(c)One year
(d)Two years✓
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (d)
Explanation: The UN Security Council has 15 members—5 permanent and 10 non-permanent elected for two-year terms.
June 2013 Paper 2
3. A member of the United Nations can be suspended from the exercise of rights and privileges of membership by the:
Options:
(a)General Assembly
(b)Security Council
(c)General Assembly on the recommendations of the Security Council✓
(d)Secretary-General on the recommendations of the Security Council
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (c)
Explanation: As per Article 5 of the UN Charter, suspension is done by the General Assembly on the recommendation of the Security Council.
June 2013 Paper 2Assertion–Reason
5. Assertion (A): Human Rights occupy a significant place in the UN Charter.
Reason (R): Members of the UN have committed themselves to promote respect for and observance of human rights and fundamental freedoms.
Options:
(a)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b)Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)✓
(c)(A) is correct but (R) is false
(d)(A) is false but (R) is correct
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (b)
Explanation: While both statements are correct, the reason does not fully explain the assertion's emphasis on the structural integration of human rights in multiple UN Charter provisions.
1. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of codes given below write the correct answer.
June 2013 Paper 3Sequence / order
6. Under which Article of the U.N. Charter is there an obligation to inform the Security Council if regional arrangements take any enforcement action for maintenance of peace and security?
Options:
(a)Article 51
(b)Article 54✓
(c)Article 107
(d)Article 108
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 54 mandates states to inform the Security Council about such actions taken under regional arrangements.
September 2013 Paper 2Assertion–Reason
Assertion (A): The United Nations cannot perform peacekeeping or peacemaking operations.
Reason (R): The United Nations has no army, navy or air force of its own.
Options:
(a)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b)Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c)(A) is true, but (R) is false
(d)(A) is false, but (R) is true✓
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (d)
Explanation: The United Nations indeed lacks its own standing armed forces, but it can and does conduct peacekeeping and peacemaking operations using troops contributed by member states.
September 2013 Paper 2Statements
2. The permanent members of the Security Council have special privilege in the voting procedure such that decisions on non-procedural matters require affirmative votes of nine members including concurring votes of the permanent members. This statement is attributed to which provision of the UN Charter?
Options:
(a)Article 27, Para 3✓
(b)Article 27, Para 2
(c)Article 26
(d)Article 28
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (a)
Explanation: Article 27(3) of the UN Charter establishes the 'concurring votes' requirement from permanent members for decisions on non-procedural matters.
September 2013 Paper 2Assertion–Reason
4. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and with the help of codes given below write the correct answer.
Assertion (A): Arbitration is the process of resolving disputes between States by means of an arbitral tribunal appointed by the parties.
Reason (R): Disputes are arbitrary.
Options:
(a)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b)Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c)(A) is true, but (R) is false✓
(d)(A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (c)
Explanation: Arbitration indeed involves resolution by appointed arbitral tribunals, but the reasoning that disputes are 'arbitrary' is false.
September 2013 Paper 2Sequence / order
7. Which Article of the UN Charter obliges members to inform the Security Council if regional arrangements take enforcement action?
Options:
(a)Article 51
(b)Article 54✓
(c)Article 107
(d)Article 108
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 54 requires reporting to the Security Council of enforcement actions by regional agencies.
September 2013 Paper 3
4. The Charter of the United Nations can be amended by:
Options:
(a)Five-third of the members of General Assembly
(b)The Security Council only
(c)Two-third of the members of the UN including all permanent members of the Security Council after recommendations by a two-thirds vote of a conference convened for the purpose✓
(d)Two-thirds of the members of the Security Council including five permanent members
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Per Articles 108 and 109 of the UN Charter, amendments require two-thirds of all UN members and ratification by two-thirds of member states including all permanent members of the Security Council.
September 2013 Paper 3
6. Which organ of the United Nations has been given the responsibility of promoting international co-operation in the realization of human rights?
Options:
(a)General Assembly
(b)Security Council
(c)Both of the above✓
(d)None of the above
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Both the General Assembly and the Security Council are responsible under the UN Charter for promoting international co-operation in human rights.
December 2013 Paper 3Match the lists
1. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:
Codes: (a) 2 1 3 4
(b)1 3 4 5
(c)1 3 5 4✓
(d)3 2 5 1
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: A → Article 5
B → Article 27
C → Article 97
D → Article 76
December 2013 Paper 3
5. Which of the following functions are performed by the Economic and Social Council?
Options:
Initiates studies on international economic, social, cultural, educational, health, and related matters
Makes recommendations to promote respect for and observance of human rights
Makes recommendations to promote friendly relations among member states
Prepares draft conventions for submission to the General Assembly on subjects within its competence
Codes: (a) 1, 2, 3, 4
(b)1, 3, 4
(c)1, 2, 4
(d)2, 3, 4
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Per Article 62 of the UN Charter, ECOSOC performs all four functions listed.
June 2014 Paper 2
5. The fundamental principle of the United Nations is:
Options: (a) Some sovereigns are more equal than others
(b)Member nations have rights but no obligations
(c)All members shall settle their international disputes by peaceful means✓
(d)All members shall settle their national disputes by peaceful means
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: As per Article 2 of the UN Charter, all members are to resolve international disputes peacefully.
December 2014 Paper 3
5. Provision, "that the U.N.O. has no competence to intervene in matters which are essentially within the domestic jurisdiction of any State," has been provided under which Article of U.N. Charter?
(a)Article 1(7)
(b)Article 2(7)✓
(c)Article 7(2)
(d)Article 98(7)
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 2(7) of the U.N. Charter restricts the U.N. from intervening in matters essentially within a state's domestic jurisdiction, preserving state sovereignty against external interference.
June 2015 Paper 2Match the lists
4. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Code:
(a)1 2 3 4
(b)2 3 4 1
(c)2 3 1 4✓
(d)4 1 2 3
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The Charter of the United Nations organizes its provisions by chapters: Membership under Chapter II, Security Council under Chapter V, International Court of Justice under Chapter XIV, and General Assembly under Chapter IV.
June 2015 Paper 3
6. Which is the only principal organ of the UNO consisting of all the members of the United Nations?
(a)Security Council
(b)General Assembly✓
(c)The Economic and Social Council
(d)Trusteeship Council
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The General Assembly is the only principal organ of the UN where all member states have equal representation and voting rights.
June 2015 Paper 3Match the lists
7. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer:
Code:
(a)1 3 2 4✓
(b)4 3 2 1
(c)3 2 4 1
(d)2 1 3 4
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The UN Charter specifies these articles for the respective provisions: Article 5 for suspension, Article 27 for veto power, Article 97 for appointment of the Secretary-General, and Article 86 for Trusteeship Council composition.
June 2015 Paper 3
8. Which of the following is not an official language of the United Nations?
(a)Russian
(b)Japanese✓
(c)Spanish
(d)Arabic
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The six official languages of the UN are Arabic, Chinese, English, French, Russian, and Spanish. Japanese is not among them.
December 2015 Paper 3
7. Consider the following:
Does a recommendation under Article 42 of the UN Charter become an obligation for member states?
If the Security Council decides to act, no further declaration is sought from the General Assembly.
When the Security Council decides enforcement measures, it determines the role of each member.
All or some members may be requested to participate, but every member is obliged to assist.
Legal requirements for military action are still incomplete after Council acts.
Which are correct?
(a)1, 2 and 4
(b)1, 3 and 4
(c)1, 2 and 3✓
(d)3, 4 and 1
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Statements 1, 2, and 3 reflect procedural aspects of Security Council actions under Article 42; statement 4 is inaccurate.
December 2015 Paper 3Match the lists
8. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct code:
Codes:
(a)2 3 4 1
(b)1 2 3 4
(c)3 1 2 4
(d)4 2 1 3✓
Answer & explanation
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Article 18 governs voting in the GA; Article 23 lists Security Council composition; Article 75 for Trusteeship Council; Article 4 governs UN membership.
July 2016 Paper 2
5. The principle of self-determination has been incorporated in the Charter of United Nations under:
(a)Article 2(7)
(b)Article 5
(c)Article 6
(d)Article 1(b), 55 and 56✓
Answer & explanation
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The principle of self-determination is incorporated in Articles 1(b), 55, and 56 of the UN Charter.
July 2016 Paper 3Statements
6. Which of the following statements is/are not correct in reference to the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC)?
ECOSOC consists of 54 members elected by the General Assembly.
Half of its members are elected each year for a term of two years.
India is one of the members of the Council.
The President of ECOSOC is elected for a two-year term.
Codes:
(a)Only (4) is not correct
(b)Only (2) and (4) are not correct✓
(c)Only (1), (2) and (3) are not correct
(d)(1), (2), (3) and (4) all are not correct
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is incorrect as one-third of members are elected each year for three-year terms. Statement 4 is incorrect; the President is elected annually.
September 2016 Paper 2
5. Under which Article of the Charter of the United Nations may the General Assembly establish such subsidiary organs as it deems necessary for the performance of its functions?
(a)Article 20
(b)Article 21
(c)Article 24
(d)Article 22✓
Answer & explanation
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Article 22 of the UN Charter empowers the General Assembly to create subsidiary organs as needed.
September 2016 Paper 2Statements
6. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
The first Security Council came into being on 12th January, 1948.
It comprises of 15 members (5 permanent and 10 non-permanent).
The resolutions of the Security Council are binding upon its members.
Ten non-permanent members are elected by the General Assembly for a term of 2 years.
Codes:
(a)Only (2) is correct
(b)Only (1) and (2) are correct
(c)Only (2), (3) and (4) are correct✓
(d)All (1), (2), (3) and (4) are correct
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The first Security Council was established in 1946, not 1948. It comprises 15 members (5 permanent and 10 non-permanent). Its resolutions are binding, and the 10 non-permanent members are elected for a 2-year term.
September 2016 Paper 3Statements
7. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct?
The General Assembly consists of all the members of the United Nations.
The Economic and Social Council works as a subordinate organ of the General Assembly.
The General Assembly is a World Legislative body. It can legislate in regard to most political matters.
Decisions on important questions are made by consensus of the members present and voting in the General Assembly.
Codes:
(a)Only (1) is correct✓
(b)Only (2), (3) and (4) are correct
(c)Only (1) and (3) are correct
(d)(1), (2), (3), and (4) all are correct
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The General Assembly includes all UN members. However, it is not a legislative body in the strict sense and important decisions are taken by a two-thirds majority, not mere consensus.
January 2017 Paper 2Statements
4. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
The Charter of the United Nations came into force on October 24, 1945.
The purposes of the United Nations are enshrined in Article 2 of the Charter.
The seventh and the last principle of the United Nations states that nothing contained in the present Charter shall authorize the UN to intervene in matters essentially within domestic jurisdiction of any state.
The provision relating to suspension of a member finds mention in Article 3 of the Charter.
Codes:
(a)Only 1 and 2 are correct
(b)1 and 3 are correct
(c)1, 2, and 3 are correct✓
(d)1, 2, 3, and 4 are correct
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. Statement 4 is incorrect as provisions about suspension appear in Article 5, not Article 3.
January 2017 Paper 3Assertion–Reason
5. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct answer:
Assertion (A): The General Assembly is one of the principal organs of the United Nations consisting of all its members.
Reason (R): The resolutions or declarations of the General Assembly are not binding upon states but are recommendations.
Codes:
(a)Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b)Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)✓
(c)(A) is correct, and (R) is wrong
(d)(A) is wrong, but (R) is correct
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Both statements are individually true but (R) doesn’t fully explain (A).
January 2017 Paper 3
7. Which of the following pair/pairs is/are not correctly matched?
Composition of Security Council – Article 23
Composition of Economic and Social Council – Article 61
Composition of General Assembly – Article 86
Composition of Trusteeship Council – Article 28
Codes:
(a)Only 4
(b)3 and 4 both✓
(c)1, 2 and 3
(d)1, 2, 3 and 4 all
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 9 deals with General Assembly composition; Article 86 covers Trusteeship Council composition.
November 2017 Paper 2Statements
6. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
The most important purpose of the United Nations is to maintain international peace and security.
The principles of the United Nations are provided under Article 2 of the U.N. Charter.
Section 6 of the U.N. Charter provides for withdrawal provisions of a Member State from the United Nations.
There are five (5) Principal organs of the United Nations.
Code:
(a)Only 1 is correct
(b)1, 2 and 3 are correct✓
(c)1, 2, 3 and 4 all are correct
(d)Only 1 and 2 are correct
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. There are actually six principal organs of the United Nations, not five.
November 2017 Paper 3Statements
7. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
The General Assembly consists of all members of the United Nations. Each member may have up to five representatives.
China, Russia, USA, UK, and France are the permanent members of the Security Council.
Members of the Economic and Social Council are elected by the Security Council; one-third are elected every year for a five-year term.
All members of the United Nations are ipso facto parties to the Statute of the International Court of Justice.
Code:
(a)1, 2 and 4 are correct✓
(b)1, 2 and 3 are correct
(c)2, 3 and 4 are correct
(d)1, 2, 3 and 4 all are correct
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect as ECOSOC members are elected by the General Assembly.
July 2018Statements
4. Which of the following statement/statements is/are not correct?
In accordance with Article 7 of the United Nations Charter, the Security Council is one of the Principal organs of the United Nations.
The First Security Council came into being on 12th January, 1946.
At Dumbarton proposals, it was finally decided to establish such an organ in the form of the Security Council.
Ten non-permanent members of the Security Council are elected by the General Assembly for 5 years.
Code:
(a)Only 3 is not correct
(b)3 and 4 are not correct✓
(c)1, 2, and 3 are not correct
(d)1, 2, 3, and 4 are not correct
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Security Council is indeed one of the six principal organs of the UN per Article 7.
Statement 2 is correct: The first Security Council did meet in January 1946.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Dumbarton Oaks proposals recommended a body like the Security Council but did not finally decide its establishment — this was settled later at the San Francisco Conference.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The 10 non-permanent members of the Security Council are elected for two years, not five.
July 2018Assertion–Reason
7. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the code below:
Assertion (A): Article 10 of the UN Charter confers upon the General Assembly very wide deliberative functions except in respect of those matters which are being considered by the Security Council.
Reason (R): The Resolutions or Declarations of the General Assembly are not binding upon the states. They are merely recommendations.
Code:
(a)Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b)Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)✓
(c)(A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d)(A) is wrong but (R) is correct
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Both statements are correct independently.
However, (R) explains the nature of resolutions, while (A) talks about the scope of General Assembly powers relative to the Security Council, so (R) isn’t the exact explanation for (A).
July 2018Statements
8. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct?
All members of the United Nations are ipso facto members of the Statute of the International Court of Justice.
The International Court of Justice consists of 25 judges elected by the General Assembly.
The Judges of the International Court of Justice are elected for a term of 5 years.
All decisions of the International Court of Justice are taken by a majority of judges.
Code:
(a)Only 1 is correct
(b)1 and 2 are correct
(c)1 and 4 are correct✓
(d)1, 2, 3, and 4 are all correct
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: All UN members are parties to the ICJ Statute.
Statement 2 is incorrect: There are 15 judges, not 25.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Judges serve 9-year terms, not 5.
Statement 4 is correct: ICJ decisions are by majority.
December 2018
5. According to which Article of the UN Charter is the affirmative vote of nine members (including permanent members) necessary for important matters in the Security Council?
(a)Article 25
(b)Article 43
(c)Article 51
(d)Article 27✓
Answer & explanation
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Article 27 of the UN Charter requires nine affirmative votes (including concurring votes of permanent members) for important decisions of the Security Council, granting veto power to the permanent members.
December 2018Match the lists
6. Match the following items from List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer:
List-I (Provision)
A. Composition of the Economic and Social Council
B. Composition of the Trusteeship Council
C. Expulsion of a member from the United Nations
D. Suspension of members of the United Nations
List-II (Article)
Article 75 of the UN Charter
Article 6 of the UN Charter
Article 5 of the UN Charter
Article 61 of the UN Charter
Options:
(a)4 1 2 3✓
(b)1 2 3 4
(c)3 4 1 2
(d)4 3 2 1
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
A → Article 61: Composition of the Economic and Social Council
B → Article 75: Composition of the Trusteeship Council
C → Article 6: Expulsion of a member from the UN
D → Article 5: Suspension of a member
December 2018
9. Under which Article of the United Nations Charter may the General Assembly establish such subsidiary organs as it deems necessary for the performance of its functions?
(a)Article 21
(b)Article 20
(c)Article 23
(d)Article 22✓
Answer & explanation
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Article 22 of the UN Charter empowers the General Assembly to establish subsidiary organs it considers necessary for performing its functions — a provision widely utilized to create various committees and programs under the UN.
June 2019Match the lists
6. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct code.
Options:
(a)A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(b)A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
(c)A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
(d)A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2✓
Answer & explanation
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
A-4: The United Nations was officially established on 24 October, 1945.
B-3: The first meeting of the United Nations Security Council was held on 12 January, 1946.
C-1: The Paris Declaration on Sanctions against South Africa was adopted on 2 May, 1981.
D-2: Boutros Boutros-Ghali took over as UN Secretary-General on 1 January, 1992.
June 2020Assertion–Reason
2. Assertion-Reason type:
Assertion (A): According to Article 7 of the UN Charter, the ICJ is one of the principal organs of the UN.
Reason (R): The ICJ consists of 15 Judges elected by the Security Council.
Choose:
(a)Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b)Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c)A is true but R is false✓
(d)A is false but R is true
Answer & explanation
Ans. (c) : A is correct — as per Article 7, ICJ is a principal organ of the UN. But R is factually incorrect — ICJ judges are elected jointly by the General Assembly and Security Council, not by the Security Council alone.
June 2020
9. The responsibility of ECOSOC regarding human rights is laid down under which article?
(a)Article 62(2)
(b)Article 68✓
(c)Article 76(c)
(d)Article 96
Answer & explanation
Ans. (b) : Article 68 empowers ECOSOC to establish commissions for promoting human rights.
June 2023Statements
12. Which of the following statements are correct?
A The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) is also called the World Bank.
B The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) is also called the International Monetary Fund.
C The Dunkel Draft Act embodies the results of the Tokyo Round.
D The WTO provides for a Secretariat headed by a Director General.
E The WTO provides for a Secretariat headed by a Secretary General.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a)A, C and E only
(b)A and E only
(c)A, C and D only
(d)A and D only✓
Answer & explanation
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) is indeed known as the World Bank. The World Trade Organization (WTO), established on 1 January 1995, provides for a Secretariat headed by a Director General, not a Secretary General.
While statement C about the Dunkel Draft Act is related to the Uruguay Round (not the Tokyo Round), and statement E is factually incorrect as the WTO Secretariat is not headed by a Secretary General.
13. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer:
June 2023Statements
17. Which of the following statements are correct?
A The Preamble of the UN Charter begins with the words: "We the peoples of the United Nations"
B The Preamble of the UN Charter begins with the words: "We the people of the United Nations"
C Maintenance of international peace and security is the primary responsibility of the Security Council
D Maintenance of international peace and security is the primary responsibility of the General Assembly
E Maintenance of international peace and security is the primary responsibility of the International Court of Justice
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a)B and C
(b)A and C✓
(c)A and D
(d)B and E
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Preamble of the United Nations Charter begins with the phrase "We the peoples of the United Nations", emphasizing the collective will of humanity rather than individual states.
Further, under Article 24 of the UN Charter, the Security Council holds the primary responsibility for the maintenance of international peace and security — not the General Assembly or the International Court of Justice.
18. Indicate the chronological order in which these conventions/treaties came into force:
A. Genocide Convention
B. Warsaw Pact
C. Montreal Convention on Hijacking
D. UN Convention on the Rights of the Child
E. Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations
Options:
(a) A, C, B, E, D
(b) A, E, B, C, D
(c) A, B, E, C, D
(d) A, B, C, E, D
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Correct sequence:
A (1948), B (1955), E (1961), C (1971), D (1989)
June 2023
4. The General Assembly of the United Nations passed the Uniting for Peace Resolution on:
(a)December 10, 1948
(b)August 1, 1950
(c)August 31, 1965
(d)November 3, 1950✓
Answer & explanation
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Uniting for Peace Resolution (Resolution 377 A) was adopted by the UN General Assembly on November 3, 1950 during the Korean War crisis when the Security Council was deadlocked.
June 2024
5. How many independent judges compose the International Court of Justice (ICJ)?
(a)25
(b)20
(c)30
(d)15✓
Answer & explanation
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The International Court of Justice comprises 15 independent judges elected for nine-year terms.
December 2024
1. Which of the Article of the United Nations Charter sets out the principles on which the United Nation is based?
(a)Article 1
(b)Article 2✓
(c)Article 52
(d)Article 10
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Article 2 of the UN Charter lays down the fundamental principles governing the functioning and relations among UN member states.
December 2024
2. What is the official language of International Court of Justice (ICJ)?
(a)English only
(b)French only
(c)Both Spanish and English
(d)Both French and English✓
Answer & explanation
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The ICJ operates officially in both French and English as per Article 39 of its Statute.
December 2024Match the lists
10. Match List-I with List-II
List-I (Article of the UN Charter)
A. Article 1.1
B. Article 1.2
C. Article 1.3
D. Article 1.4
List-II (Purposes of the UN)
(1) To develop friendly relations among nations
(2) To achieve international cooperation in solving international problems
(3) To maintain peace and security
(4) To be a centre for harmonising the actions of nations in the attainment of common ends
Options:
(1)(A)-(3), (B)-(1), (C)-(2), (D)-(4)✓
(2)(A)-(4), (B)-(2), (C)-(3), (D)-(1)
(3)(A)-(3), (B)-(1), (C)-(4), (D)-(2)
(4)(A)-(1), (B)-(4), (C)-(3), (D)-(2)
Answer & explanation
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
This matches the Purposes as set out in Article 1 of the UN Charter.
December 2024
11. Who among the following is currently (January, 2025) serving as Judge of International Court of Justice?
(a)D. Y Chandrachud
(b)Ruchira Kamboj
(c)Dalveer Bhandari✓
(d)Harish Salve
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Justice Dalveer Bhandari is India's sitting judge at the International Court of Justice.
June 2025
2. Which of the following UN organizations addresses global justice concerns?
(a)Trusteeship Council
(b)General Assembly
(c)International Court of Justice✓
(d)Security Council
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c) International Court of Justice
Explanation: The ICJ is the principal judicial organ of the UN that settles legal disputes between states and gives advisory opinions on legal questions.
3. Arrange the following GATT negotiations chronologically (1947–1994):
8. On which date did the United Nations Organisation officially come into existence?
(a)20th October 1945
(b)24th October 1945✓
(c)10th December 1948
(d)10th December 1945
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b) 24th October 1945
Explanation: The UN Charter came into force on 24 October 1945 after ratification by key signatories including the five permanent members.
Dec 2020/June 2021 · Q50
Which of the following is not the principal organ of the United Nations?
(a)General Assembly
(b)Economic and Social Council
(c)International Court of Justice
(d)International Human Rights Commission✓
Answer & explanation
Answer: (d) International Human Rights Commission
June 2026 · Q65Sequence / order
Arrange the following International Organization in ascending order of their establishment
A. International Tele-Communication Union
B. World Intellectual Property Organization
C. International Finance Corporation
D. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
E. Food and Agricultural Organization
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a)D, A, B, C, E
(b)E, D, A, C, B
(c)A, E, D, B, C✓
(d)B, C, E, D, B
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c) A, E, D, B, C
Explanation: To arrange these international organizations in ascending order based on their establishment dates as keyed in official examination question papers:
• A. International Telecommunication Union (ITU): Founded in 1865 (originally established as the International Telegraph Union, making it the oldest international body listed).
• E. Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO): Established on October 16, 1945.
• D. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD): Formally established on December 27, 1945 following the 1944 Bretton Woods Conference.
• B. World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO): Established by the WIPO Convention signed in 1967 (entering into force in 1970).
• C. International Finance Corporation (IFC): Established in 1956 (as an affiliate of the World Bank Group). Matching this chronological progression to the exam key yields the sequence A, E, D, B, C, which corresponds to Option (c).
June 2026 · Q136Statements
Consider the following statement relating to power of General Assembly under the United Nations charter
A. The resolution or declaration of the General Assembly are not binding upon the States
B. Under Article 2(7) of the United Nations Charter, the General Assembly may intervene in matters which are essentially within domestic jurisdiction of States
C. The General Assembly may make recommendation for promoting international cooperation in the political field
D. The General Assembly may make recommendation for progressive development of International Law and its classification
E. The General Assembly may recommend to promote International cooperation in the economic, social, cultural, education and health field etc
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(a)A, B and C only
(b)B, C and D only
(c)A, C, D and E only✓
(d)A, C and D only
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c) A, C, D and E only
Explanation: Evaluating each statement regarding the powers and functions of the UN General Assembly (UNGA) under the Charter of the United Nations:
• Statement A - CORRECT:
Unlike the binding decisions of the UN Security Council under Chapter VII, the resolutions and declarations adopted by the General Assembly are generally recommendatory in nature and not legally binding upon Member States (except for internal operational matters such as the UN budget).
• Statement B - INCORRECT:
Article 2(7) of the UN Charter contains the principle of domestic jurisdiction: "Nothing contained in the present Charter shall authorize the United Nations to intervene in matters which are essentially within the domestic jurisdiction of any state..." Therefore, the General Assembly cannot intervene in matters essentially within the domestic jurisdiction of States.
• Statement C - CORRECT:
Under Article 13(1)(a) of the UN Charter, the General Assembly is expressly empowered to initiate studies and make recommendations for the purpose of promoting international cooperation in the political field.
• Statement D - CORRECT:
Under Article 13(1)(a) of the UN Charter, the General Assembly is tasked with encouraging the progressive development of international law and its codification.
• Statement E - CORRECT:
Under Article 13(1)(b) of the UN Charter, the General Assembly may make recommendations promoting international cooperation in the economic, social, cultural, educational, and health fields, and assisting in the realization of human rights and fundamental freedoms. Therefore, statements A, C, D, and E are correct, corresponding to Option (c).
2. Principal modes of peaceful settlement of disputes are:
(a)5
(b)6
(c)4
(d)None✓
Answer & explanation
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The principal modes listed under Article 33 of the UN Charter are seven: Negotiation, Enquiry, Mediation, Conciliation, Arbitration, Judicial Settlement, and resort to Regional Agencies.
June 2010
4. Which of the following can request the International Court of Justice to give an advisory opinion?
(a)State
(b)General Assembly✓
(c)International Law Commission
(d)Individual
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: As per Article 96 of the UN Charter, the General Assembly (and Security Council) can request advisory opinions from the ICJ.
December 2010Assertion–Reason
2. Assertion (A): The jurisdiction of the International Court of Justice is based on the consent of the parties to the dispute.
Reason (R): The principle of reciprocity underlies the jurisdiction of the International Court of Justice.
Codes:
(a)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)✓
(b)Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c)(A) is true, but (R) is false
(d)(A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation: ICJ’s jurisdiction depends on state consent, often based on reciprocity — one state consents if another does likewise.
December 2010Match the lists
4. Match the case decided by the International Court of Justice with the year of decision:
Codes:
(a)A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4✓
(b)A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
(c)A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(d)A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Matches established ICJ case rulings to their respective years.
June 2012 Paper 2
7. In a case concerning the legality of the Threat or Use of Nuclear Weapons, the International Court of Justice gave an advisory opinion at the request of:
Options: (a) U.N. Security Council
(b)U.N. General Assembly✓
(c)World Health Organization
(d)UNESCO
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (b)
Explanation: The ICJ rendered its advisory opinion on nuclear weapons in 1996 following a request from the UN General Assembly on the legality of their use.
December 2012 Paper 3
6. Which of the following has the power to give effect to the judgment of the International Court of Justice if a party to the case fails to perform the obligations incumbent upon it under a judgement?
Options:
(a)General Assembly
(b)Security Council✓
(c)Highest National Court in the connected State
(d)International Court of Justice
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (b)
Explanation: Under Article 94 of the UN Charter, if a party fails to perform a judgment, the other may bring the matter to the Security Council for enforcement.
December 2012 Paper 3
7. In which of the following cases, International Court of Justice refused to give advisory opinion at the request of World Health Organization?
Options:
(a)Legality of the Threat or Use of Nuclear Weapons✓
(b)Nicaragua v. USA
(c)Competence of Assembly regarding admission to United Nations
(d)North Sea Continental Shelf cases
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (a)
Explanation: The ICJ initially refused to issue an advisory opinion on the legality of nuclear weapons use requested by WHO, considering it outside the organization's mandate.
June 2013 Paper 3Match the lists
3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:
Options:
(a)1 2 3 4✓
(b)4 3 2 1
(c)3 4 1 2
(d)2 1 4 3
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (a)
Explanation: These are the well-established legal principles associated with each respective case.
September 2013 Paper 2Match the lists
3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:
Options:
(a)2 3 1 4✓
(b)3 2 1 4
(c)3 2 4 1
(d)1 2 4 3
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: (a)
Explanation: This pairing matches classic international law scholars and their notable works correctly.
September 2013 Paper 3
4. In which case was the following principle laid down: "The absence of one party's consent to jurisdiction when proceedings were instituted was cured by subsequent consent to jurisdiction given outside, and without specific reference to the proceedings before the court."
Options:
(a)Mavrommatis Palestine Concessions case✓
(b)Corfu Channel case
(c)Electricity Co. of Sofia case
(d)Right of Passage over Indian Territory case
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The Mavrommatis Palestine Concessions case addressed the effect of subsequent consent to jurisdiction.
June 2014 Paper 2
6. The Doctrine of Forum Prorogatum means:
Options: (a) Jurisdiction cannot be conferred upon an existing tribunal not otherwise competent by the litigants during proceedings
(b)Jurisdiction can be conferred upon an existing tribunal not otherwise competent by the litigants during proceedings✓
(c)Jurisdiction can be conferred upon an existing tribunal not otherwise competent by the litigants after the proceedings
(d)None of the above
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Under this doctrine, consent of parties during a case can confer jurisdiction on a tribunal previously lacking it.
June 2014 Paper 3Match the lists
5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:
Codes:
(a)3 4 1 2
(b)4 3 1 2✓
(c)4 3 2 1
(d)1 2 4 3
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The doctrine and cases are accurately matched as per landmark ICJ decisions.
December 2014 Paper 2Sequence / order
5. Arrange the following ICJ judgments in chronological sequence:
Right of Passage over Indian Territory case
South-West Africa case
Frontier Dispute
Temple of Preah Vihear
Code: (a) 1, 2, 3, 4
(b)2, 4, 1, 3
(c)1, 4, 2, 3✓
(d)3, 2, 4, 1
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: (1) Right of Passage case — 1957
(2) Temple of Preah Vihear — 1962
(3) South-West Africa case — 1966
(4) Frontier Dispute — 1983
December 2014 Paper 2Match the lists
6. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Code: (a) 3 4 1 2
(b)2 3 4 1
(c)4 2 3 1
(d)1 2 3 4
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Article 59 pertains to the binding force of decisions, Article 36 to jurisdiction, Article 65 to advisory jurisdiction, and Article 62 to intervention rights.
December 2014 Paper 3Match the lists
2. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Code:
(a)1 2 3 4
(b)4 3 2 1✓
(c)2 4 1 3
(d)3 1 4 2
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The cases are famous in international legal history for establishing principles on state passage, border disputes, fisheries jurisdiction, and asylum — correctly paired in option (b).
June 2015 Paper 3
4. Which of the following cases is not a case decided by the Permanent Court of International Justice?
(a)Movrommatis Palestine Concessions Case
(b)S.S. Wimbledon Case
(c)Anglo-Norwegian Fisheries Case✓
(d)Chorzow Factory (Indemnity) Case
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The Anglo-Norwegian Fisheries Case was decided by the International Court of Justice (ICJ) in 1951, not its predecessor, the Permanent Court of International Justice.
December 2015 Paper 2Match the lists
5. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer:
Code:
(a)1 2 3 4
(b)4 3 2 1
(c)3 4 1 2✓
(d)2 1 4 3
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Article 38 outlines the applicable law; Article 36(5) deals with transferred jurisdiction; Article 62 allows intervention by non-party states; Article 59 establishes binding force for parties.
December 2015 Paper 3
5. Which institution is not authorized to request an Advisory Opinion from the ICJ?
(a)Economic and Social Council
(b)The Trusteeship Council
(c)International Atomic Energy Agency✓
(d)Secretariat
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Only UN organs and specialized agencies listed by the General Assembly may request ICJ advisory opinions. IAEA isn’t listed.
July 2016 Paper 3
7. Under which Article of the United Nations Charter is the Security Council empowered to implement the judgments of the World Court in case one of the parties fails to implement it and the other party brings the matter to the Security Council?
(a)Article 94✓
(b)Article 96
(c)Article 62
(d)Article 36 (5)
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Article 94(2) of the UN Charter empowers the Security Council to enforce ICJ decisions if a party fails to comply.
September 2016 Paper 3
8. Which one of the following cases has not been decided by the International Court of Justice under its contentious jurisdiction?
(a)Nuclear Tests Case (22 June, 1973)
(b)Corfu Channel Case
(c)Nottebohm (Liechtenstein v. Guatemala) Case
(d)Legality of the Threat or Use of Nuclear Weapons✓
Answer & explanation
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The Legality of the Threat or Use of Nuclear Weapons was decided by the ICJ under its advisory jurisdiction, not contentious jurisdiction.
January 2017 Paper 2Statements
5. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
"Mediation" is not a pacific means of settlement of international disputes.
"Pious Fund Case" is an important decision given by the Permanent Court of Arbitration.
"Retorsion" is a coercive means of settlement of international disputes.
A leading case on "Reprisal" is the "Naulilaa incident".
Codes:
(a)Only 2 is correct
(b)1, 2, and 3 are correct
(c)2, 3, and 4 are correct✓
(d)1, 2, 3, and 4 are correct
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct. Mediation is indeed a pacific means, hence statement 1 is incorrect.
January 2017 Paper 3Match the lists
6. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct code:
Codes:
(a)4 1 2 3✓
(b)1 2 3 4
(c)2 3 4 1
(d)3 4 1 2
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Correct pairings as per ICJ case law precedents.
November 2017 Paper 2Match the lists
4. Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II and choose the correct answer:
Code:
(a)2 1 4 3✓
(b)1 2 3 4
(c)3 4 1 2
(d)4 3 2 1
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Correctly matched as per case law.
November 2017 Paper 3
8. Advisory opinions can be given by the International Court of Justice on legal questions:
(a)On the request of the Security Council only
(b)On the request of the General Assembly only
(c)On the request of the General Assembly or the Security Council both✓
(d)On the request of the Economic and Social Council if authorized by the Security Council
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Under Article 65 of the ICJ Statute, advisory opinions can be given on legal questions at the request of the General Assembly or the Security Council.
July 2018Match the lists
5. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the code given below:
List-I (Provisions)
A. Law applied by the International Court of Justice
B. Binding force of the decision of International Court of Justice
C. Interim Measures or Relief
D. International Court's power to allow a state to intervene, in a case to which it is not a party
List-II (Articles)
Article 41
Article 62
Article 38
Article 59
Code:
(a)3 4 1 2✓
(b)1 2 3 4
(c)2 3 4 1
(d)4 1 2 3
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
A → Article 38: Sources of law applied by the ICJ
B → Article 59: Binding force of ICJ decisions is only between parties to the case
C → Article 41: Provisional/interim measures
D → Article 62: Power to permit intervention by a state with legal interest in the case outcome
July 2018Match the lists
6. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the code given below:
List-I (Modes)
A. Cession
B. Reprisal
C. Good offices
D. Substitution
List-II (Provisions)
Acquisition of Nationality
Loss of Nationality
Pacific means of settlement of International Disputes
Coercive means of settlement of International Disputes
Code:
(a)1 4 3 2✓
(b)2 3 4 1
(c)3 2 1 4
(d)4 1 2 3
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
A → 1: Cession is a mode of acquiring nationality
B → 4: Reprisal involves coercive means in international disputes
C → 3: Good offices are pacific means of settlement
D → 2: Substitution relates to the loss of nationality in some legal systems
July 2018Assertion–Reason
9. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the code given below:
Assertion (A): When a state behaves discourteously with another state, international law confers the right upon the affected state to resort to 'retorsion', which means retaliation.
Reason (R): If international disputes are not resolved by peaceful means, coercive measures may be used.
Code:
(a)Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)✓
(b)Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c)(A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d)(A) is wrong but (R) is correct
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
December 2018
7. Under Article 36(2) of the Statute of the International Court of Justice, a State party may confer compulsory jurisdiction on the Court in respect of which of the following matters?
Interpretation of a Treaty
Any question of national law
The existence of any fact which, if established, would constitute a breach of international obligations
The nature and extent of reparation for the breach of a domestic obligation
Options:
(a)Only 1
(b)1 and 3✓
(c)1, 2 and 4
(d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Article 36(2) of the ICJ Statute allows States to accept compulsory jurisdiction of the Court in matters concerning the interpretation of a treaty and the existence of any fact constituting a breach of international obligations. Questions of national law and reparations for domestic obligations fall outside its scope.
December 2018Assertion–Reason
8. Assertion (A): The 'Doctrine of Forum Prorogatum' states the court will have jurisdiction in a matter where it otherwise has none, if the respondent consents to jurisdiction after proceedings have commenced.
Reason (R): The operation of the 'Doctrine of Forum Prorogatum' has been envisaged under the UN Charter and also the Statute of the International Court of Justice.
Options:
(a)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)✓
(b)Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c)(A) is true, but (R) is false
(d)(A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Doctrine of Forum Prorogatum allows the International Court of Justice to assume jurisdiction if a respondent consents after a case is filed. This is permitted under Article 36 of the ICJ Statute and recognized as a procedural mechanism in international adjudication.
June 2019Statements
7. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
The operation of the doctrine of Forum Prorogatum has not been envisaged under the UN Charter or the Statute of the International Court of Justice.
The doctrine of Forum Prorogatum may not operate where the court already has jurisdiction ratione personae.
The doctrine of Forum Prorogatum affords an informal way for a state to express consent to the jurisdiction of the court.
The principle underlying the doctrine of Forum Prorogatum was enunciated by the Permanent Court of International Justice in the Island of Palmas case (1928).
Select the correct answer using the code below:
(a)Only 1
(b)1 and 3✓
(c)2, 3 and 4
(d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct — the doctrine of Forum Prorogatum is not explicitly mentioned in the UN Charter or ICJ Statute.
Statement 3 is also correct — this doctrine allows a state to informally give consent to the jurisdiction of the court.
Statements 2 and 4 are incorrect —
• Statement 2 is wrong because Forum Prorogatum is precisely for cases where jurisdiction is otherwise absent, not already existing.
• Statement 4 is factually inaccurate; the Island of Palmas case (1928) dealt with territorial sovereignty, not the doctrine of Forum Prorogatum.
December 2019Statements
4. Which of the following statements are correct?
Chapter VI of the UN Charter deals with the pacific settlement of disputes.
The purpose of the United Nations is world peace.
The Security Council comprises of 14 members.
The non-permanent members are elected by the General Assembly for a period of three years.
Choose the correct option:
(a)1 and 2✓
(b)1 and 3
(c)2 and 3
(d)2 and 4
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Chapter VI of the UN Charter covers pacific settlement of disputes and the primary purpose of the UN is maintaining world peace. The Security Council has 15 members (not 14), and non-permanent members are elected for two years.
December 2019Match the lists
7. Match List I with List II
Choose the correct option:
(a)2, 3, 4, 1✓
(b)3, 1, 4, 2
(c)2, 4, 1, 3
(d)4, 3, 2, 1
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Correct matching based on case subjects and ICJ judgments.
December 2019
8. “The International Court of Justice is indeed a sine qua non for the establishment of Rule of Law in interstate relations” is said by:
(a)Judge Shigeru Oda
(b)Judge Nagendra Singh✓
(c)Justice Dalveer Bhandari
(d)Justice R.S. Pathak
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Judge Nagendra Singh made this observation about the importance of the ICJ for maintaining legal order among states.
June 2020
4. Which Chapter of the UN Charter deals with pacific settlement of disputes?
(a)Chapter VI✓
(b)Chapter VII
(c)Chapter III
(d)Chapter II
Answer & explanation
Ans. (a) : Chapter VI titled ‘Pacific Settlement of Disputes’ provides for methods like negotiation, mediation, conciliation, arbitration, and adjudication.
June 2020Match the lists
5. Match List I with List II:
Choose:
(a)(A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
(b)(A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)✓
(c)(A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
(d)(A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
Answer & explanation
Ans. (b) : Correct match — A-38, B-62, C-36, D-41.
June 2020Sequence / order
3. Indicate the correct chronological order in which the following cases were decided:
Case concerning the Temple of Preah Vihear
Frontier Dispute (Burkina Faso v. Mali)
The Caroline Case
R v. Keyn
Chorzow Factory (Indemnity) Case
Choose the correct answer:
(a)1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(b)5, 4, 3, 2, 1
(c)3, 4, 5, 1, 2✓
(d)2, 3, 4, 5, 1
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Caroline Case — 1842
R v. Keyn — 1876
Chorzow Factory — 1927
Temple of Preah Vihear — 1962
Frontier Dispute — 1986
June 2020
11. The World Court refused to give its advisory opinion in which of the following cases?
(a)The Genocide Convention case
(b)The Legality of the Use by a State of Nuclear Weapons in Armed Conflict✓
(c)Interpretation of Peace Treaties case
(d)Legality of the Threat or Use of Nuclear Weapons case
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The ICJ declined to deliver an advisory opinion on the legality of the use of nuclear weapons in armed conflict upon a WHO request.
June 2023Sequence / order
19 Indicate the chronological order in which the following cases were decided:
A. Fisheries Jurisdiction (Merits) Case
B. Island of Palmas Arbitration
C. Nuremberg Judgement
D. Right of Passage over Indian Territory Case
E. SS Lotus Case
Options:
(a)B, E, C, D, A
(b)B, C, D, E, A
(c)E, B, C, D, A✓
(d)E, C, D, B, A
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Chronological order:
E (1927), B (1928), C (1946), D (1954), A (1972)
June 2023Sequence / order
20 Indicate the chronological order in which the following cases were decided:
A. Elcamann’s Case
B. Anglo-Norwegian Fisheries Case
C. Anglo-Iranian Oil Company Case
D. Chorzow Factory Case
E. Western Sahara Case
Options:
(a)D, C, A, B, E
(b)D, B, C, A, E✓
(c)D, A, C, B, E
(d)D, A, B, C, E
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Chronological order:
D (1928), B (1951), C (1952), A (1960), E (1975)
1. There is no distinction between de facto and de jure recognition for the purpose of giving effect to the internal acts of the recognised authority. This was held so in the case of:
(a) Mighell v. Sultan of Johore
(b) Luther v. Sagor
(c) Vavasseur v. Krupp
(d) Schooner Exchange v. Mc Faddon
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
In Luther v. Sagor (1921), the British court held that both de facto and de jure recognition entitle a government to have its internal acts recognised, establishing no practical distinction between them for legal effect.
June 2023Sequence / order
3. Arrange the following cases decided by the Permanent Court of Arbitration in their chronological order:
(A) Muscat Dhows case
(B) North Atlantic Fisheries case
(C) Savarkar's case
(D) Russian Indemnity case
(E) The Island of Palmas case
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a)(A), (B), (C), (D), (E)✓
(b)(C), (D), (B), (A), (E)
(c)(B), (C), (D), (A), (E)
(d)(C), (E), (D), (B), (A)
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
June 2024Statements
6. Which of the following statements are correct as per the International Court of Justice (ICJ)?
A. The judgment is final and without appeal
B. No application for revision may be made at all
C. The Court shall deliver its advisory opinion in open court
D. The members of ICJ are elected for 10 years
Choose the correct answer:
(a)C and D only
(b)B and D only
(c)A and B only
(d)A and C only✓
Answer & explanation
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Statements A and C are correct. ICJ judgments are final with no appeal, and advisory opinions are delivered in open court. Judges are elected for 9 years, not 10.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions.(9 to 11) From the second half of the nineteenth century to the present, the Geneva Convention 1864, (revised in 1906, 1929, and 1949) and Hague Convention 1899 (revised in 1907) comprised one of the most extensive bodies of positive international law outlining constraints on state behavior. The Geneva and Hague Conventions are noteworthy not only for their content, but also for their widespread ratification. Accepting the Conventions was a prestigious symbol of membership in the exclusive "international society of civilized states," and most states ratified them sooner or later. The Conventions gave combatant victims of war-wounded soldiers and POWs-international rights to medical care and humane conditions of incarceration. The Hague Convention was built on a fundamental distinction between combatants and noncombatants, designed to ensure that noncombatants did not become victims of war. Noncombatants were not considered legitimate military targets, and military occupation authorities were prohibited from exploiting civilian populations under their control.
December 2024
6. The jurisdiction of the International Court of Justice is based upon which principle?
(a)The principle of deferential treatment
(b)The principle of functionalism
(c)The principle of compulsory participation
(d)The principle of consensual basis✓
Answer & explanation
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
ICJ’s jurisdiction is fundamentally based on consent of the parties (Article 36 of ICJ Statute). States must agree to submit to its jurisdiction.
December 2024Sequence / order
16. Arrange the following cases in their chronological order.
(A) Legal consequences of the continued presence of South Africa in Namibia (South-West Africa) notwithstanding Security Council Resolution (Advisory Opinion)
(B) Texaco Overseas Petroleum Co. v. Govt. of the Libyan Arab Republic
(C) Fisheries Jurisdiction (United Kingdom v. Iceland)
(D) Western Sahara Case (Advisory Opinion)
(E) Voting Procedure on Questions Relating to Reports and Petitions Concerning the Territory of South-West Africa (Advisory Opinion)
Options:
(a)(A), (C), (D), (B), (E)
(b)(E), (A), (C), (D), (B)✓
(c)(D), (B), (C), (A), (E)
(d)(B), (E), (A), (D), (C)
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Chronological order:
E (1955) → A (1971) → C (1974) → D (1975) → B (1977)
December 2025Sequence / order
1. Arrange the following in the order of their appearance in the relevant Article under the Charter of the United Nations. The parties to any dispute, the continuance of which is likely to endanger the maintenance of international peace and security, shall first of all, seek a solution by:
A. Negotiation
B. Enquiry
C. Mediation
D. Conciliation
E. Arbitration
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1.A, C, D, E, B
2.E, C, D, A, B
3.A, B, C, D, E✓
4.B, D, C, A, E
Answer & explanation
Correct Answer: A, B, C, D, E
June 2026 · Q68Match the lists
Match List I with List II LIST I LIST II
A. Principle of Reciprocity I. Article 36(1) of ICJ
B. Voluntary Jurisdiction II. Article 36(2) of ICJ
C. Transferred Jurisdiction III. Article 65 of ICJ
D. Advisory Jurisdiction IV. Article 36(5) of ICJ
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a)A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III✓
(b)A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(c)A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(d)A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Explanation: Matching each jurisdictional concept of the International Court of Justice (ICJ) with its governing statutory provision:
• A. Principle of Reciprocity \longrightarrow II. Article 36(2) of ICJ Statute:
Article 36(2) provides that States may declare acceptance of compulsory jurisdiction "in relation to any other state accepting the same obligation" (and Article 36(3) explicitly notes declarations may be made "on condition of reciprocity").
B. Voluntary Jurisdiction \longrightarrow I. Article 36(1) of ICJ Statute:
Article 36(1) provides that the jurisdiction of the Court comprises all cases which the parties refer to it by mutual consent (voluntary/conventional jurisdiction), as well as matters provided for in the UN Charter or treaties in force.
• C. Transferred Jurisdiction \longrightarrow IV. Article 36(5) of ICJ Statute:
Article 36(5) deals with transferred jurisdiction, stipulating that declarations made under the Statute of the Permanent Court of International Justice (PCIJ) that remain in force are deemed acceptances of the compulsory jurisdiction of the ICJ.
• D. Advisory Jurisdiction \longrightarrow III. Article 65 of ICJ Statute:
Article 65 explicitly governs the Court’s advisory jurisdiction, empowering the ICJ to give advisory opinions on legal questions at the request of authorized UN organs or specialized agencies.
•
June 2026 · Q98Sequence / order
Arrange the following decision of ICJ under contentious jurisdiction in their ascending order
A. Anglo-Norwegian Fisheries Case
B. The Carfu Channel Case
C. The Asylum (Colombia v. Peru) Case
D. Minquiers and Ecrehos (France v. UK) Case
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a)B, C, A, D✓
(b)C, B, A, D
(c)B, A, C, D
(d)D, B, C, A
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a) B, C, A, D
Explanation: Arranging the given landmark decisions of the International Court of Justice (ICJ) under its contentious jurisdiction in ascending chronological order of their final judgment dates:
• B. The Corfu Channel Case (United Kingdom v. Albania): Decided on April 9, 1949. It was the very first contentious case decided by the ICJ after its establishment, laying down key principles regarding state responsibility, innocent passage, and maritime safety.
• C. The Asylum Case (Colombia v. Peru): Decided on November 20, 1950. Addressed regional international customary law, state sovereignty, and diplomatic asylum.
• A. Anglo-Norwegian Fisheries Case (United Kingdom v. Norway): Decided on December 18, 1951. A foundational case on customary international law regarding straight baselines and territorial sea delimitation.
• D. Minquiers and Ecrehos Case (France v. United Kingdom): Decided on November 17, 1953. Dealt with territorial sovereignty over two small island groups based on historical title and exercise of effective possession.
June 2026 · Q118Match the lists
Match List I with List II LIST I LIST II
A. Temple of Preah Vihear I. Justice, Equality and Conscience
B. Mavrommati’s Palestine Concession Case II. Principle of Estoppel
C. R. v. Keyn III. Res Judicata
D. Diversion of Water from Muese IV. Principle of Subrogation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a)A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(b)A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(c)A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III✓
(d)A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Explanation: Matching each landmark judicial decision in International Law from List I with the fundamental General Principle of Law Recognized by Civilized Nations (Article 38(1)(c) of the ICJ Statute) established or applied in List II:
• A. Temple of Preah Vihear (Cambodia v. Thailand, 1962) II. Principle of Estoppel:
The International Court of Justice (ICJ) applied the doctrine of estoppel, holding that since Thailand had accepted and relied upon Annex I maps drawn up by French authorities for decades without protest, it was precluded from denying the validity of the boundary established by those maps.
• B. Mavrommatis Palestine Concessions Case (PCIJ, 1924) IV. Principle of Subrogation:
The Permanent Court of International Justice (PCIJ) recognized and applied the legal concept of subrogation, holding that Great Britain, as the Mandatory power over Palestine, succeeded to the concessions and obligations granted by the predecessor sovereign power (the Ottoman Empire).
• C. R. v. Keyn (1876 / The Franconia Case) I. Justice, Equality and Conscience:
In this landmark English court decision, it was observed that international law is rooted in the principles of justice, equality, and conscience as accepted by the long-continued practice of civilized nations.
• D. Diversion of Water from Meuse Case (PCIJ, 1937) II. Res Judicata:
The PCIJ recognized general principles of procedural and substantive law, notably applying the rule of Res Judicata along with principles of equity (such as the clean hands doctrine) in international dispute resolution.
8. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct?
WTO was established as a result of the culmination of the Uruguay Round of GATT.
The new World Trade Organization (WTO) came into effect on January 1, 1955.
At the time of establishment, WTO had 88 members.
The 7th Ministerial Conference of WTO was held in Marrakesh (Morocco) from November 30 to December 2, 2008.
Options:
(a)Only 1
(b)2 and 3
(c)1 and 2✓
(d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
December 2019Statements
5. Which of the following statements are correct as per Article III of agreements establishing WTO?
To administer and promote agreements on individual and multilateral agreements.
To administer the rules and procedures governing the settlement of disputes.
To administer the Trade Policy Review Mechanism (TPRM).
To coordinate IMF, IBRD and World Bank on regional economic policies.
Choose the correct option:
(a)1 and 2
(b)1 and 3
(c)2 and 3✓
(d)3 and 4
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The WTO administers the rules and procedures for dispute settlement and oversees the Trade Policy Review Mechanism. It does not directly coordinate IMF and World Bank policies.
June 2020Statements
3. Which of the following statements are correct?
A. Dunkel Draft Text was released on 20th Dec 1995.
B. WTO came into effect on 1st Jan 1995, replacing GATT.
C. WTO functions are mentioned in Article III of its agreement.
D. 6th Ministerial Conference of WTO was held in Hong Kong from 13-18 Dec 2008.
Choose:
(a)B, C only✓
(b)A, C, D only
(c)A, B, C only
(d)A, B, C, D
Answer & explanation
Ans. (a) : Only statements B and C are correct.
Explanation: WTO came into force on 1st Jan 1995 (replacing GATT). Its functions are listed in Article III. Dunkel Text was in 1991, not 1995, and the 6th WTO Ministerial was held in Hong Kong in Dec 2005 — not 2008.
June 2020Match the lists
1. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I
A. Third Ministerial Conference of WTO was held at
B. Sixth Ministerial Conference of WTO was held at
C. Fourth Ministerial Conference of WTO was held at
D. Seventh Ministerial Conference of WTO was held at
List-II
(I) Hong Kong (China)
(II) Seattle (US)
(III) Geneva (Switzerland)
(IV) Doha (Qatar)
Choose the correct answer:
(a)(A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
(b)(A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)✓
(c)(A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
(d)(A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
(A) Third Ministerial — Seattle (1999)
(B) Sixth Ministerial — Hong Kong (2005)
(C) Fourth Ministerial — Doha (2001)
(D) Seventh Ministerial — Geneva (2009)
December 2024
5. Which of the following is true with WTO?
A. WTO is headquartered in Hague
B. There have been 9 rounds of trade negotiation since the Second World War
C. Doha Round is the latest round of negotiation for trade for WTO members
D. WTO has 154 members
Choose the correct answer:
(a)(B) and (C) only✓
(b)(A) and (D) only
(c)(C) and (D) only
(d)(A) and (C) only
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
WTO is headquartered in Geneva, not Hague.
There have been 9 rounds of trade negotiations, with the Doha Round as the latest (though incomplete). WTO currently has 164 members (as of 2025).
31 Dec 2025 (Shift 1) · Q51
When did India and the United Kingdom (U.K.) formally sign the Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement (CETA)?
3. The International Committee of Red Cross was founded by:
(a)Henry Dunant✓
(b)Gustave Moynier
(c)Hugo Grotius
(d)Hans Peter Gasser
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The International Committee of the Red Cross (ICRC) was founded by Henry Dunant in 1863 following his experience at the Battle of Solferino. He advocated for impartial care for wounded soldiers.
June 2019
9. Which of the following is NOT a principle which is the foundation of International Humanitarian Law and guides emergency humanitarian action in armed conflict?
(a)Principle of Humanity
(b)Principle of Impartiality
(c)Principle of Neutrality
(d)Principle of Self-determination✓
Answer & explanation
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The core humanitarian law principles include Humanity, Impartiality, Neutrality, and Independence. Self-determination is a principle of international human rights law, not humanitarian law.
June 2019Assertion–Reason
10. Read both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): International Humanitarian Law regulates the conduct of war (jus in bello), protecting those not participating and restricting warfare means and methods.
Reason (R): International Humanitarian Law is inspired by considerations of humanity and the mitigation of human suffering.
Options:
(a)Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)✓
(b)Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c)(A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d)(A) is wrong but (R) is correct
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Both statements accurately reflect the core character and philosophy of International Humanitarian Law (IHL), and the Reason precisely explains the humanitarian basis behind the limitations on warfare described in the Assertion.
June 2020
2. Which one of the following Geneva conventions has the provisions on "The protection of the victims of maritime warfare"?
(a)The Second Geneva Convention, 1949✓
(b)The Third Geneva Convention, 1949
(c)The Fourth Geneva Convention, 1949
(d)The First Geneva Convention, 1949
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Second Geneva Convention of 1949 specifically deals with the protection of wounded, sick, and shipwrecked armed forces at sea.
June 2020
3. The law relating to armed conflicts of non-international character is governed by:
(a)Common Article 3 of the Geneva Convention, 1949 or the Additional Protocol I, 1977
(b)Common Article 3 of the Geneva Convention, 1949 or the Additional Protocol II, 1977✓
(c)Additional Protocols I and II, 1977
(d)Only Additional Protocol I, 1977
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Common Article 3 of the 1949 Geneva Conventions and Additional Protocol II, 1977 govern non-international armed conflicts (civil wars, internal rebellions). Protocol I relates to international armed conflicts.
June 2023Statements
5. Which of the following statements in relation to the dissenting judgment of Dr. Radha Vinod Pal in the Tokyo Trial can be correctly attributed to him?
(A) War is beyond the scope of International law
(B) Conduct of war is within the scope of the rules of International law
(C) The Pact of Paris brought about no change in the status of war
(D) International law has developed so much so as to make war a crime
(E) Conspiracy is an independent crime under International law
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a)(A), (B) and (C) only✓
(b)(C), (D) and (E) only
(c)(B), (C) and (E) only
(d)(A), (B) and (D) only
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
In his dissent, Dr. Radhabinod Pal argued that war itself was outside the jurisdiction of international law at that time, although conduct within war was regulated. He was critical of the Pact of Paris for failing to effect real legal change.
June 2023Assertion–Reason
6. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The tests of proportionality, necessity, and balancing are found at prominent places in the GATS, GATT, SPS and TBT Agreements.
Reason (R): The meaning of these tests and their interrelationship is not always clear.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a)Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b)Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)✓
(c)(A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(d)(A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
While both proportionality, necessity, and balancing appear in the WTO agreements, and while their interrelationship can sometimes be unclear, (R) is not the precise explanation for the presence of these tests in those agreements.
June 2024
7. What was the fundamental distinction on which the Hague Convention was built?
(a)Distinction between military occupation and civil population
(b)Distinction between positive international law and laws of war
(c)Distinction between combatants and non-combatants✓
(d)Distinction between military targets and military authorities
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Hague Convention of 1899 was based on distinguishing combatants and non-combatants, providing protection to civilians in times of war.
June 2024
8. What do Hague Convention 1899 and Geneva Convention 1864 primarily outline?
(a)Human conditions of incarceration
(b)Constraints on State Behavior✓
(c)Rights of victims of war
(d)Rights of wounded soldiers
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Both conventions outlined legal constraints on the behavior of states during armed conflict, especially concerning treatment of combatants and non-combatants.
June 2024
10. What makes Geneva Convention (1864) noteworthy?
(a)Its content alone
(b)Its widespread ratification alone
(c)Its content and its widespread ratification✓
(d)The new international rights created by the Geneva Convention
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Geneva Convention (1864) is significant both for its substance and its extensive ratification by numerous states.
June 2024
11. Which international instrument predominantly ensures that non-combatants did not become victims of war?
(a)Positive international law
(b)The Geneva Convention
(c)The Hague Convention✓
(d)International Humanitarian law
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Hague Convention (1899) specifically aimed to protect non-combatants by regulating warfare conduct.
June 2024Sequence / order
12. Arrange the following International Humanitarian Law Treaties and Conventions in the chronological order of their adoption.
A. Chemical Weapons Convention
B. Arms Trade Treaty
C. International Convention for the Protection of All Persons from Enforced Disappearance
List-II (Corresponding Articles of State Responisibility & Compliance)
I. Article 49-54
II. Article 50-53
III. Article 129-132
IV. Article 146-149
Choose the correct answer:
(a)(A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)✓
(b)(A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
(c)(A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(d)(A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Geneva Convention I (Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field): I. Article 49-54
B. Geneva Convention II (Wounded, Sick, and Shipwrecked at Sea): II. Article 50-53
C. Geneva Convention III (Prisoners of War): III. Article 129-132
D. Geneva Convention IV (Civilians in Time of War): IV. Article 146-149
December 2024
7. Which of the following declaration of the Hague Convention Concerning Expanding Bullets of 1899 prohibits the use of dum-dum bullets?
(a)Declaration I
(b)Declaration II
(c)Declaration III✓
(d)Declaration IV
Answer & explanation
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Declaration III of the Hague Convention (1899) explicitly prohibits the use of expanding (dum-dum) bullets, which cause excessive injury.
December 2024Sequence / order
9. Arrange the following International Conventions/Agreements in the chronological order of their adoption.
(A) Additional Protocols to the Geneva Conventions
(B) International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of all Migrant Workers and Members of their Families
(C) Convention Relating to the Status of Refugees
(D) Agreement establishing World Trade Organisation
Options:
(1)(C), (A), (B), (D)✓
(2)(A), (C), (B), (D)
(3)(B), (C), (D), (A)
(4)(D), (C), (B), (A)
Answer & explanation
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Chronological order:
C (1951) → A (1977) → B (1990) → D (1995)
December 2024Sequence / order
14. Arrange the following provisions of the Hague Convention, 1907 in the numerical order in which they appear:
(A) The Pacific Settlement of International Disputes
(B) The Limitation of Employment of Force for Recovery of Contract Debts
(C) The Opening of Hostilities
(D) The Laws and Customs of War on Land
(E) The Rights and Duties of Neutral Power and Persons in case of War on Land
Options:
(a)(A), (B), (C), (D), (E)✓
(b)(A), (E), (D), (C), (B)
(c)(B), (D), (C), (E), (A)
(d)(B), (C), (A), (D), (E)
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
This sequence follows the order of the Hague Conventions of 1907 numbering.
June 2025
4. Which Article of the Geneva Conventions, 1949 is referred to as the "mini-convention within the conventions"?
(a)Article 2
(b)Article 3✓
(c)Article 4
(d)Article 5
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b) Article 3
Explanation: Common Article 3 applies in non-international armed conflicts and outlines minimum humanitarian protections, hence called a “mini convention.”
June 2025Sequence / order
10. Arrange the following conventions in the chronological order of their coming into force (ascending):
A. The Biological Weapons Convention
B. The Chemical Weapons Convention
C. The Conventional Weapons Convention
D. The Ottawa Convention on Anti-Personnel Mines
(a)A, B, C, D
(b)A, C, B, D✓
(c)C, A, B, D
(d)C, D, A, B
Answer & explanation
Answer: (b) A, C, B, D
Explanation:
Biological Weapons Convention – 1975
Conventional Weapons Convention – 1983
Chemical Weapons Convention – 1997
Ottawa Convention – 1999
December 2024 · Q129Sequence / order
Arrange the following in the order of sections in which they appear in the Lieber code.(A) Martial Law
(B) Public and Private property of the enemy
(C) Deserters
(D) Partisans
(E) Spies
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a)(A), (B), (C), (D), (E)✓
(b)(B), (C), (D), (E), (A)
(c)(C), (D), (E), (A), (B)
(d)(D), (E), (AА), (B), (C)
Answer & explanation
Answer: (a) (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)
December 2024 · Q138Sequence / order
Arrange the following Conventions/treaties in their chronological order
(A) Hague Conventions (on humanitarian law)
(B) European Convention of Human Rights
(C) Geneva Convention
(D) Tokyo Convention (on hijacking)
(E) Universal Declaration of Human Rights
Choose the correct answer from the options given below