Unit II · UGC NET Law PYQConstitutional and Administrative Law

2. Article 21 of the Constitution of India incorporates the right to "Doctor's assistance". In which of the following cases was this decided?

1. (a)Charles Sobhraj v. Superintendent Central Jail
2. (b)Hoskot v. State of Maharashtra
3. (c)Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration
4. (d)Parmanand Katara v. Union of India✓

3. In which of the following cases was the doctrine of "prospective overruling" applied?

1. (a)Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
2. (b)Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
3. (c)I.C. Golaknath v. State of Punjab✓
4. (d)Keshavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

5. Part IV-A was added to the Constitution of India by the:

1. (a)Twenty-Fifth Amendment Act
2. (b)Forty-Second Amendment Act✓
3. (c)Forty-Fourth Amendment Act
4. (d)Fifty-Second Amendment Act

6. Advertisement is a "Commercial Speech" was laid down in:

1. (a)Hamdard Dawakhana v. Union of India✓
2. (b)Express Newspapers (P) Ltd. v. Union of India
3. (c)Bennett Coleman and Co. v. Union of India
4. (d)Tata Press Ltd. v. Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Ltd.

8. Assertion (A): Article 21 expressly incorporates the concept of due process of law.

Reason (R): Due process of law is an attribute of liberty.

1. (a)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. (b)Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (c)(A) is correct, but (R) is false
4. (d)(A) is false, but (R) is correct✓

3. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that allowing medical examination of a woman to prove her virginity amounts to violation of her right to privacy, guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution?

1. (a)Surjeet Singh Thind v. Kanwaljit Kaur✓
2. (b)Phillipa Anne v. State of Tamil Nadu
3. (c)Hameeda Sarfaraj v. M.S. Kashekar
4. (d)Kavita v. State of Maharashtra

4. By which Constitutional Amendment was Article 21A (Right to Education) inserted in the Constitution of India?

1. (a)Eighty-Third Amendment Act
2. (b)Eighty-Sixth Amendment Act✓
3. (c)Ninetieth Amendment Act
4. (d)Ninety-Second Amendment Act

6. Justice Verma Committee Report relates to:

1. (a)Effectuation of Fundamental Duties✓
2. (b)Duty to vote in Election
3. (c)Freedom of Religion
4. (d)National Judicial Commission

7. Article 51A(k) (Eleventh Fundamental Duty) was added by:

1. (a)Ninety-Third Amendment
2. (b)Ninety-First Amendment
3. (c)Eighty-Sixth Amendment✓
4. (d)Eighty-Fourth Amendment

8. Who submitted the report of the “National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution”?

1. (a)Justice B.P. Jeevan Reddy
2. (b)Justice A.S. Anand
3. (c)Justice R.S. Sarkaria
4. (d)Justice M.N. Venkatachaliah✓

1. Requirement of ‘reasonableness’ runs like a golden thread through the entire fabric of fundamental rights is held in:

1. (a)Keshavananda Bharthi v. State of Kerala
2. (b)Indra Sawhney v. Union of India
3. (c)Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan
4. (d)Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India✓

2. 'Right to life' does not include 'right to die'. It has been held in the case of:

1. (a)P. Rathinam v. Union of India
2. (b)Bandhua Mukti Morcha v. Union of India
3. (c)A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
4. (d)Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab✓

3. Fundamental Rights are:

1. (a)Unrestricted Rights
2. (b)Absolute Rights
3. (c)Restricted Rights✓
4. (d)None of the above

4. Right against 'Double Jeopardy' is guaranteed under:

1. (a)Article 21
2. (b)Article 20(1)
3. (c)Article 20(2)✓
4. (d)Article 22(1)

5. Assertion (A): An accused person cannot be compelled to give his thumb impression, except for comparison.

Reason (R): It amounts to self-incrimination.

1. (a)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. (b)Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (c)(A) is true, but (R) is false
4. (d)(A) is false, but (R) is true✓

1. The term 'secularism' implies that:

1. (a)Parliament should support religion
2. (b)State and religion are inseparable
3. (c)State does not recognise any religion as a State religion✓
4. (d)People are free to worship State recognised religion

2. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that, “if a body is an agency or instrumentality of the government, it may be an authority under Article 12”?

1. (a)Ujjambai v. State of Uttar Pradesh
2. (b)Ramana Dayaram Shetty v. International Airport Authority of India✓
3. (c)Electricity Board Rajasthan v. Mohanlal
4. (d)P.O. Shamdasani v. Central Bank of India

3. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 'Carry Forward Rule' as unconstitutional in which case?

1. (a)Balaji v. State of Mysore
2. (b)Rangachari v. General Manager, Southern Railway
3. (c)Ashok Kumar Thakur v. State of Bihar
4. (d)Devadasan v. Union of India✓

5. Which of the following cases is popularly known as the 'Fundamental Rights' case?

1. (a)M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
2. (b)Keshavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala✓
3. (c)S.P. Gupta v. Union of India
4. (d)Champakam Dorairajan v. State of Madras

6. Match the following (List I with List II):

Correct Code:

1. (a)4 2 1 3
2. (b)2 3 4 1
3. (c)3 1 4 2✓
4. (d)2 1 3 4

1. The Supreme Court of India has adopted a new approach for interpreting the concept of 'Equality' in which of the following cases?

1. (a)State of West Bengal v. Anwar Ali Sarkar
2. (b)E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu✓
3. (c)Keshavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
4. (d)State of Karnataka v. Appa Balu Ingale

2. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that the 'Right to Life' does not include the 'Right to Die'?

1. (a)P. Rathinam v. Union of India
2. (b)M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
3. (c)Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab✓
4. (d)Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration

1. The words 'Socialist' and 'Secular' were inserted in the Preamble by:

1. (a)1st Amendment✓
2. (b)24th Amendment
3. (c)44th Amendment
4. (d)42nd Amendment

Explanation: The words "Socialist" and "Secular" were added to the Preamble of the Constitution through the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 during the Emergency period.

2. The expression 'minority' in Article 30 means any community which is:

1. (a)Less than 50% of the population of a particular state as a whole✓
2. (b)Less than 40% of the population of a particular state
3. (c)Determined on basis of the population of the country
4. (d)Determined on basis of the Census

Explanation: Article 30 provides rights to religious and linguistic minorities. The Supreme Court in T.M.A. Pai Foundation (2002) held that minority status is determined state-wise, and if the population of a group is less than 50% in that state, it qualifies as a minority.

3. A writ of certiorari can be issued against:

1. (a)Parliament✓
2. (b)State Legislature
3. (c)Lower Courts to remit all documents to the writ court for verification
4. (d)Executive for duty performance

Explanation: Certiorari is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to quash an order passed without jurisdiction or in violation of principles of natural justice. It is not applicable to legislatures.

4. Who is competent to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court?

1. (a)Parliament✓
2. (b)Governor
3. (c)Council of Ministers
4. (d)President of India

Explanation: As per Article 143, the President can refer matters of public importance or legal questions to the Supreme Court for its advisory opinion.

5. The Supreme Court observed that Parliamentary privileges are not subject to Fundamental Rights in:

1. (a)Ganapati Reddy v. Nafisul Hasan✓
2. (b)M.S.M. Sharma v. Sri Krishna Sinha
3. (c)Keshav Singh v. Speaker, U.P.
4. (d)S.P. Mittal v. Union of India

Explanation: In M.S.M. Sharma v. Sri Krishna Sinha (1959), the Supreme Court held that Parliamentary privileges are not subject to fundamental rights, particularly Article 19.

6. Article 360 of the Constitution relates to:

1. (a)Ordinance making power✓
2. (b)Amendment
3. (c)Election Commission
4. (d)Financial Emergency

Explanation: Article 360 empowers the President to declare a Financial Emergency if the financial stability or credit of India or any part thereof is threatened.

1. The Supreme Court held in which case that the Preamble is not part of the Constitution?

1. (a)Berubari case✓
2. (b)A.K. Gopalan case
3. (c)Balaji case
4. (d)Minerva Mills case

Explanation: In the Berubari case (1960), the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is not a part of the Constitution. This view was later overruled in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), which held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution and reflects its basic structure.

2. Article 16(4A), which empowers states to make reservation in promotion for SC/STs, was added by:

1. (a)75th Amendment✓
2. (b)76th Amendment
3. (c)77th Amendment
4. (d)78th Amendment

Explanation: Article 16(4A) was inserted by the 77th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1995, allowing the State to provide for reservation in promotion to SCs and STs in government services.

3. Environmental protection, including forests and wildlife, is:

1. (a)Directive Principle of State Policy✓
2. (b)Fundamental National Policy
3. (c)Fundamental Duty of a Citizen
4. (d)Both (a) and (c)

Explanation:

Article 48A: Directive Principle about protecting the environment

Article 51A(g): Fundamental Duty of citizens to protect the environment, forests, and wildlife

4. Originally, the Supreme Court consisted of a Chief Justice and:

1. (a)Seven other judges✓
2. (b)Twelve other judges
3. (c)Thirteen other judges
4. (d)Fifteen other judges

Explanation: When the Supreme Court was established in 1950, it had one Chief Justice and seven other judges. This strength has been increased over the years.

5. A resolution passed under Article 249(1) remains in force for a maximum of:

1. (a)Three months✓
2. (b)Six months
3. (c)Nine months
4. (d)Twelve months

Explanation: A resolution under Article 249(1) passed by the Rajya Sabha remains valid for one year (12 months) and can be extended by similar resolutions.

6. The President's Rule under Article 356 remains valid in a State for a maximum of:

1. (a)One month✓
2. (b)Three months
3. (c)Six months
4. (d)One year

Explanation: Initially imposed for 6 months. Can be extended up to 3 years with parliamentary approval every 6 months and fulfillment of certain conditions.

7. The power of Parliament to amend the Constitution is given in Article 368 by:

1. (a)Twenty-fourth Amendment Act✓
2. (b)Twenty-sixth Amendment Act
3. (c)Forty-second Amendment Act
4. (d)Forty-fourth Amendment Act

Explanation: The 24th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1971, made it clear that Parliament has the power to amend any part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights, and that the President must give assent.

1. "The new Constitution establishes, indeed a system of Government which is at the most quasi-federal... rather than the federal state with unitary features" — said by:

1. (a)Dr. K.C. Wheare✓
2. (b)Dr. Rajendra Prasad
3. (c)Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
4. (d)Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

2. In which of the following cases was it held that 'Right to life' does not include 'Right to Die'?

1. (a)Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab✓
2. (b)Chenna Jagdeshwar v. State of A.P.
3. (c)State of U.P. v. Sanjay Kumar Bhatia
4. (d)Deena v. Union Bank of India

3. Assertion (A): An accused person cannot be compelled to give his signature or thumb impression.

Reason (R): An accused person cannot be compelled to be a witness against himself.

Code:

1. (a)A is true but R is false
2. (b)A is false but R is true
3. (c)Both A and R are true✓
4. (d)Both A and R are false

5. Assertion (A): Directive Principles are not enforceable by any Court.

Reason (R): Directive Principles are more or less fundamental in the governance of the country.

Code:

1. (a)A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A✓
2. (b)A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. (c)A is true, but R is false
4. (d)A is false, but R is true

9. Writ of Mandamus cannot be issued where a fundamental right is infringed by:

1. (a)A Statute
2. (b)A Statutory Order
3. (c)An Executive Order
4. (d)Private body✓

1. Clause (4) of Article 15 has been added to the Constitution by:

1. (a)The Constitution First Amendment Act✓
2. (b)The Constitution Second Amendment Act
3. (c)The Constitution Fourth Amendment Act
4. (d)The Constitution Sixth Amendment Act

2. The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a Uniform Civil Code throughout the territory of India as per:

1. (a)Article 40
2. (b)Article 43
3. (c)Article 44✓
4. (d)Article 48

3. In India, sovereignty lies with:

1. (a)The Constitution
2. (b)The Supreme Court
3. (c)The Parliament
4. (d)The People✓

4. The Supreme Court of India formulated the doctrine of eclipse in:

1. (a)Bhikaji Narain Dhakras v. State of M.P.✓
2. (b)Bashesharnath v. Income Tax Commissioner
3. (c)State of W.B. v. Anwar Ali Sarkar
4. (d)Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

11. Democracy and Federalism are essential features of our Constitution and form part of its basic structure. This observation was made in S.R. Bommai v. Union of India by which judge?

1. (a)Justice P.B. Sawant✓
2. (b)Justice S.R. Pandyan
3. (c)Justice J.S. Verma
4. (d)Justice A.M. Ahmadi

12. According to A.V. Dicey, the 'Rule of Law' is embodied in which Article of the Indian Constitution?

1. (a)Article 12
2. (b)Article 13
3. (c)Article 14✓
4. (d)Article 21

13. When the court declares certain provisions of an Act invalid, but it does not affect the rest of the Act, the principle is called:

1. (a)Doctrine of Prospective Overruling
2. (b)Doctrine of Severability✓
3. (c)Doctrine of Pleasure
4. (d)Doctrine of Eclipse

**14. Assertion (A): A bill which contains a taxation clause along with other matters may also be a Money Bill.

Reason (R): All bills dealing with taxes are Money Bills.**

1. (a)A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation✓
2. (b)A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
3. (c)A is true, but R is false
4. (d)A is false, but R is true

16. Articles 20 and 21 were excluded from the scope of Article 359 by which Constitutional Amendment?

1. (a)42nd Amendment
2. (b)43rd Amendment
3. (c)44th Amendment✓
4. (d)59th Amendment

2. “The State shall make provision for securing just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief” is found:

1. (a)In the Preamble
2. (b)As a Fundamental Right under Article 21
3. (c)As a Directive Principle of State Policy✓
4. (d)As a Fundamental Duty of the State

3. Fundamental Duties under Part IVA were added by which Amendment?

1. (a)17th Amendment
2. (b)25th Amendment
3. (c)42nd Amendment✓
4. (d)44th Amendment

4. The powers of the President of India are:

1. (a)Supra-Constitutional
2. (b)Beyond the Constitution
3. (c)In accordance with the Parliament of India
4. (d)In accordance with the Constitution of India✓

6. In which case was it held that under Article 226, courts are flooded with PILs and frivolous petitions must be filtered and dismissed with costs?

1. (a)Deepak Sharma v. Vineeta Sharma
2. (b)Dharampal v. State of Uttar Pradesh
3. (c)Holicow Pictures Pvt. Ltd. v. Premchandra Mishra✓
4. (d)M.C. Mehta v. Union of India

2. Article 15(1) prohibits discrimination against any citizen on the grounds of:

1. (a)Religion, race and caste only
2. (b)Religion, caste and sex only
3. (c)Religion, caste, sex and place of birth only
4. (d)Religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them✓

3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:

Code: A–2, B–1, C–3, D–4

4. Which provision imposes a duty on the Union to ensure that State Governments function according to the Constitution?

1. (a)Article 352
2. (b)Article 355✓
3. (c)Article 356
4. (d)Article 360

6. A Judge of the Supreme Court can be removed on the grounds of:

1. (a)Proved misbehaviour or incapacity✓
2. (b)Violation of the Constitution
3. (c)Both (A) and (B)
4. (d)None of the above

5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:

A. Parliament can legislate on State subjects in national interest → Article 249

B. Parliament can legislate on State subjects during emergency → Article 250

C. Parliament can legislate for treaties and international agreements → Article 253

D. Parliament can legislate on State subjects with consent of States → Article 252

1. Social, economic and political justice is —

1. (a)an idea enshrined in the Preamble to the Constitution of India✓
2. (b)guaranteed by Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India
3. (c)a Directive Principle of State Policy taken into consideration while making enactments
4. (d)guaranteed to the people by the writs issued by the High Courts and Supreme Court

2. Without paying proper remuneration, labour taken from prisoners is 'forced labour' and a violation of —

1. (a)Article 20 of the Constitution of India
2. (b)Article 21 of the Constitution of India
3. (c)Article 22 of the Constitution of India
4. (d)Article 23 of the Constitution of India✓

3. Article 51A of the Constitution of India provides for the Fundamental Duties of —

1. (a)Citizens of India✓
2. (b)Public Servants
3. (c)All those who run public and private sectors
4. (d)Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers

2. In which of the following amendments were the words "Nothing in Article 13 shall apply to any amendment made under Article 368" inserted?

1. (a)22nd Amendment
2. (b)24th Amendment✓
3. (c)42nd Amendment
4. (d)44th Amendment

4. In which one of the following cases has the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of the Constitution (93rd Amendment) introducing Article 15(5)?

1. (a)T.M.A. Pai Foundation v. State of Karnataka
2. (b)Indra Sawhney v. Union of India
3. (c)M. Nagaraj v. Union of India
4. (d)Ashok Kumar Thakur v. Union of India✓

11. Assertion (A): Equality is antithetic to arbitrariness.

Reason (R): Article 14 of the Indian Constitution prevents arbitrary discretion being vested in the executive.

1. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution?

Options:

1. (a)Berubari Union and Exchange of Enclaves
2. (b)Golaknath v. State of Punjab
3. (c)Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala✓
4. (d)None of these

2. Clause (5) of Article 15 was added to the Constitution by which amendment?

Options:

1. (a)Constitution (First Amendment) Act
2. (b)Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act
3. (c)Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act
4. (d)Constitution (Ninety-third Amendment) Act✓

3. Match the following directives with the correct articles:

A. Equal justice and free legal aid

B. Uniform civil code for citizens

C. Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife

D. Promotion of international peace and security

Options (Codes):

1. (a)3, 2, 4, 1
2. (b)3, 1, 2, 4✓
3. (c)1, 2, 3, 4
4. (d)4, 1, 2, 3

5. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that the word "law" in Article 21 does not mean just any enacted piece of legislation, but must be just, fair, and reasonable?

Options:

1. (a)A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
2. (b)Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India✓
3. (c)Both (a) and (b)
4. (d)None of the above

Q4. Match the following doctrines with relevant cases:

A. Doctrine of Eclipse

B. Doctrine of Severability

C. Doctrine of Waiver

D. Doctrine of Pith and Substance

RMDC v. Union of India

State of Bombay v. A.N. Balsara

Bhikaji v. State of M.P.

Basheshar Nath v. Income Tax Commissioner

1. (a)3 2 4 1
2. (b)2 3 1 4
3. (c)3 1 4 2✓
4. (d)4 2 3 1

Q6. Which of the following statements is true regarding self-incriminatory statements?

1. (a)All self-incriminatory statements are valid
2. (b)All self-incriminatory statements violate Article 20(3)
3. (c)Self-incriminatory statements made under compulsion violate Article 20(3)✓
4. (d)None of the above

Q7. Assertion (A): Under Article 368, Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution.

Reason (R): Parliament is the supreme legislative body elected by the people.

1. (a)Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
2. (b)Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. (c)A is true, but R is false
4. (d)A is false, but R is true✓

Q8. Match the following Directive Principles with their respective Articles:

A. Separation of Judiciary from Executive

B. Promotion of International Peace

C. Organisation of Village Panchayats

D. Protection of Forests and Wildlife

Article 40

Article 48A

Article 50

Article 51

1. (a)1 2 3 4
2. (b)3 1 4 2✓
3. (c)3 2 4 1
4. (d)2 1 3 4

Q9. Which of the following is not correct about the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?

1. (a)It is a part of the Constitution
2. (b)It can be amended under Article 368
3. (c)It confers power to the legislature✓
4. (d)It declares the objectives of the Constitution

Q11. Which Article provides for the right to constitutional remedies?

1. (a)Article 19
2. (b)Article 21
3. (c)Article 32✓
4. (d)Article 226

Q13. What does the doctrine of severability mean in constitutional law?

1. (a)If one part of a statute is unconstitutional, the entire law is void
2. (b)Only that part which is unconstitutional will be struck down✓
3. (c)The unconstitutional law will be modified by courts
4. (d)Law remains valid unless Parliament repeals it

Q14. Who among the following was not a member of the Constituent Assembly of India?

1. (a)Dr. Rajendra Prasad
2. (b)Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
3. (c)Mahatma Gandhi✓
4. (d)Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Q15. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India removed which of the following rights from the list of fundamental rights?

1. (a)Right to property✓
2. (b)Right to education
3. (c)Right to life
4. (d)Right to religious freedom

1. It was remarked in Golaknath v. State of Punjab that the Preamble to the Constitution contains in a nutshell its ideals and aspirations. Who made this observation?

1. (a)Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer
2. (b)Justice K. Subba Rao✓
3. (c)Justice A.N. Ray
4. (d)Justice H.R. Khanna

2. The right of eligible employees to be considered for promotion is virtually a part of Fundamental Rights. This was decided by the Supreme Court in which case?

1. (a)Union of India v. Hemraj Singh Chauhan✓
2. (b)Supreme Court Employees Association v. Union of India
3. (c)John Vallamattam v. Union of India
4. (d)St. Stephens College v. University of Delhi

4. In which of the following cases have Fundamental Duties been judicially invoked?

Prem Prakash v. Punjab University

Suresh Koshy George v. University of Kerala

Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra v. State of Uttar Pradesh

Shri Sachidanand Pandey v. State of West Bengal

1. (a)1 and 2
2. (b)2 and 3
3. (c)3 and 4✓
4. (d)1, 2, 3, and 4

3. Article 51A of the Constitution of India is confined to:

1. (a)All citizens of India✓
2. (b)All persons of India
3. (c)All Non-Residents of India
4. (d)All students of India

7. Assertion (A): The power under Article 368 of the Constitution is a constituent power subject to the constitutional scheme as to distribution of legislative power according to entries in the Seventh Schedule.

Reason (R): Because Sasanka Sekhar Maity v. Union of India decided so.

Codes:

1. (a)Both A and R are incorrect✓
2. (b)Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct reason for A
3. (c)A is correct and R is incorrect
4. (d)A is incorrect and R is correct

The Preamble can only be amended if it violates the basic structure of the Constitution.

Since the Preamble is not an Article, it is not a part of the Constitution.

1. (a)Only 2
2. (b)3 and 4
3. (c)1, 2 and 3
4. (d)1, 2, 3 and 4✓

3. “It is the soul of the Constitution and the very heart of it.” — This famous observation refers to which Article and was made by whom?

1. (a)Justice P.N. Bhagwati
2. (b)Dr. B.R. Ambedkar✓
3. (c)Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer
4. (d)Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

4. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

Chapter III of Fundamental Rights in the Constitution is based upon the Bill of Rights of the USA.

'Right to die' is a Fundamental Right under Article 21 of the Constitution.

The Indian Constitution is a complete Federal Constitution.

Fundamental Rights can be waived under the Indian Constitution.

1. (a)Only 2
2. (b)Only 3 and 4
3. (c)Only 2 and 3
4. (d)2, 3, and 4✓

5. Match the following doctrines and leading cases:

A. Equal pay for equal work – 1. Randhir Singh v. Union of India

B. Agencies or Instrumentalities of the State under Article 12 – 2. R.D. Shetty v. International Airport Authority of India

C. Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles are complementary – 3. Unnikrishnan v. State of Andhra Pradesh

D. Damages for violation of Article 21 – 4. Rudul Shah v. State of Bihar

1. (a)3 1 4 2✓
2. (b)1 2 3 4
3. (c)4 3 1 2
4. (d)2 4 3 1

6. Match the following constitutional amendments and provisions:

A. Article 15(4) – 1. Constitution (1st Amendment), 1951

B. Article 13(4) – 2. Constitution (25th Amendment), 1971

C. Article 16(4A) – 3. Constitution (85th Amendment), 2001

D. Article 21A – 4. Constitution (86th Amendment), 2002

1. (a)1 2 3 4
2. (b)4 1 2 3✓
3. (c)3 4 1 2
4. (d)2 3 4 1

1. Through the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution, which of the following expressions were added to the Preamble?

1. (a)Only 1, 2 and 3
2. (b)Only 2, 3 and 4✓
3. (c)Only 1, 3 and 4
4. (d)1, 2, 3 and 4

2. Match the following cases with the subject matter and select the correct option:

A. Compensation to persons killed in fake encounters

B. Compensation to rape victims

C. Interim compensation to rape victims

D. Protection against illegal arrest, detention, and custodial deaths

1. (a)4 3 2 1
2. (b)3 1 2 4✓
3. (c)2 4 1 3
4. (d)1 2 3 4

3. Match the following legal principles and related cases:

A. Right not to speak is part of right to speech

B. No monopoly of government on electronic media

C. Commercial ads are part of speech and expression

D. Government cannot impose prior restraint on publications

1. (a)4 3 2 1✓
2. (b)3 2 1 4
3. (c)1 4 3 2
4. (d)2 1 4 3

4. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Fundamental Rights are not absolute; they are subject to reasonable restrictions.

Freedom of the Press is implicit under Article 19.

Article 15(4) provides benefits to socially and economically backward classes.

Article 14’s “equal protection of laws” is based on English law.

1. (a)Only 1 and 2 are correct✓
2. (b)1, 2 and 3 are correct
3. (c)3 and 4 are correct
4. (d)1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

5. Match the features of the Indian Constitution with the countries from which they are borrowed:

A. Parliamentary system of government

B. Directive Principles of State Policy

C. Fundamental Rights

D. Emergency Provisions

1. (a)4 3 1 2
2. (b)3 4 1 2✓
3. (c)1 2 3 4
4. (d)2 1 4 3

6. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that Article 31C was beyond Parliament’s amending power as it destroyed the balance between Parts III and IV of the Constitution?

1. (a)Minerva Mills v. Union of India✓
2. (b)In Re Kerala Education Bill
3. (c)Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
4. (d)Sarla Mudgal v. Union of India

1. Read the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the codes given below:

Assertion (A): The preamble of the Constitution of India defines the ideal philosophy of Indian democracy and its key concepts are laid down as Justice, Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity.

Reason (R): A democracy to be real must be characterized by two features.

1. (a)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. (b)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (c)(A) is true but (R) is false✓
4. (d)(A) is false but (R) is true

4. Which of the following are included in the freedom of the press?

Right to print and publish news

Distribution of printed matter

Criticism of public affairs

Pre-censorship

1. (a)1, 2, 3, and 4
2. (b)1, 2, and 3✓
3. (c)1, 3, and 4
4. (d)2, 3, and 4

1. Match the items of List-I with List-II and choose the correct code:

List-I:

A. To renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of woman

B. Mandamus cannot be sought against an individual who does not observe a fundamental duty

C. Respect to National Anthem

D. Respect and dignity to National Flag

List-II:

Surya Narain Choudhary v. Union of India

Union of India v. Naveen Jindal

Bijoe Emmanuel v. State of Kerala

Union of India v. Naveen Jindal

Options:

1. (a)1 2 3 4
2. (b)2 1 3 4✓
3. (c)2 1 4 3
4. (d)3 4 1 2

7. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding Article 368?

Options:

1. (a)Procedure for amendment of the Constitution only
2. (b)Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution only
3. (c)Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and the procedure therefore✓
4. (d)Limitation on the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution

1. In Golaknath v. State of Punjab, what did Justice K. Subba Rao observe?

1. (a)The Preamble contains in a nutshell the ideals and aspirations of the Constitution.✓
2. (b)The Preamble is the key to open the minds of the Constitution makers.
3. (c)The Preamble is enforceable by the judiciary.
4. (d)The Preamble of our Constitution is of great importance and it should be implemented.

2. In which case did the Supreme Court rule that "Imparting education cannot be treated as a trade or business"?

1. (a)Unnikrishnan Case✓
2. (b)Mohini Jain Case
3. (c)Dinesh Kumar Case
4. (d)P.A. Inamdar Case

3. Which of the following statements are correct as per the Indian Constitution?

The State may make provision for securing just and humane conditions of work.

The State shall endeavor to provide early childhood care and education for all children until the age of six years.

The State shall not endeavor to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code in the territory of India.

The State shall endeavor to protect and improve forests and wildlife of the country.

Options:

1. (a)1, 2 and 3
2. (b)2, 3 and 4
3. (c)2 and 4✓
4. (d)3 and 4

5. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court invalidate a constitutional amendment due to non-compliance with the procedure under Article 368(2)?

1. (a)Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu✓
2. (b)Keshavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
3. (c)Golaknath v. State of Punjab
4. (d)State of West Bengal v. Union of India

3. Match the following Articles with their corresponding provisions:

A. Article 13 —

B. Article 15 —

C. Article 20 —

D. Article 23 —

Protection in respect of conviction for offences

Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour

Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth

Laws inconsistent with or in derogation of Fundamental Rights

1. (a)4 2 1 3
2. (b)2 1 4 3
3. (c)3 2 1 4
4. (d)4 3 1 2✓

6. Which of the following are included in the Fundamental Duties in the Constitution of India?

To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India

To defend the country and render national service when called upon

To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture

To develop the scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform

1. (a)1, 2 and 3
2. (b)1, 2 and 4
3. (c)2, 3 and 4✓
4. (d)1, 3 and 4

7. Match the following Articles with the provisions:

A. Article 40 —

B. Article 42 —

C. Article 44 —

D. Article 50 —

Separation of judiciary from the executive

Organisation of village panchayats

Provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief

Uniform civil code

1. (a)1 2 4 3
2. (b)2 3 4 1✓
3. (c)2 4 1 3
4. (d)3 4 1 2

2. In which case did the Supreme Court of India decide that the right to education under Article 21 does not extend to professional education?

1. (a)Balbir Thomas v. Centre for Cellular & Molecular Biology✓
2. (b)Haobijam Rita Devi v. Sikkim Manipal Health Sciences University
3. (c)P. Raveendran v. Union of India
4. (d)Tumnyak Etc. v. AIIMS

3. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct combination:

List-I (Case)

A. Maharshi Avadhesh v. Union of India

B. Kachchh Jal Sankat Nivaran Samiti v. State of Gujarat

C. M.H. Hoskot v. State of Maharashtra

D. State of Uttar Pradesh v. Pradhan Sangh Kshetra Samiti

List-II (Principle)

Organisation of Village Panchayats

Legal Aid

Common Good

Uniform Civil Code

Options:

1. (a)A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
2. (b)A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
3. (c)A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1✓
4. (d)A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

1. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer using the codes below:

Assertion (A): By amendment, the Parliament cannot destroy the basic features of the Constitution of India.

Reason (R): The power to amend does not include the power to abrogate the Constitution of India.

Options:

1. (a)Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)✓
2. (b)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
3. (c)(A) is false, but (R) is true
4. (d)(A) is true, but (R) is false

2. The Supreme Court held that even petitions filed under Article 32 are subject to the general principle of res judicata in which case?

1. (a)M.S.M. Sharma v. Dr. Sree Krishna Sinha✓
2. (b)S.P. Gupta v. Union of India
3. (c)Charanlal Sahu v. K.R. Narayanan
4. (d)Ranji Thomas v. Union of India

6. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that constitutional amendments are not included within the definition of 'law' under Article 13(2) and (3)?

1. (a)Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
2. (b)Sankari Prasad v. Union of India✓
3. (c)Golaknath v. State of Punjab
4. (d)Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

1. The Preamble to the Constitution of India proclaims that "We, the People of India" have established which type of Republic?

1. (a)A Sovereign, Socialist, Democratic Republic only
2. (b)A Sovereign, Secular, Democratic Republic only
3. (c)A Secular, Socialist, Democratic Republic only
4. (d)A Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic✓

2. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct code:

List-I (Articles)

A. Article 16(3)

B. Article 19(5)

C. Article 19(6)

D. Article 31A(2)(a)

List-II (Amendments)

1st Amendment

17th Amendment

7th Amendment

44th Amendment

Codes:

1. (a)A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2✓
2. (b)A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
3. (c)A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
4. (d)A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4

5. "The Fundamental Duties incorporated in Article 51A of the Constitution are mere reminders to the citizens with no enforceability," was a statement made by which judge?

1. (a)Justice J.S. Verma✓
2. (b)Justice O. Chinnappa Reddy
3. (c)Justice Y.V. Chandrachud
4. (d)Justice P.N. Bhagwati

7. The Supreme Court held that the right to be appointed as a guardian under personal law is not a fundamental right in which of the following cases?

1. (a)Mohd. Aslam v. Union of India
2. (b)Sahibzada Saiyed Muhammed Amirabbas Abbasi v. State of Madhya Bharat✓
3. (c)Khatri v. State of Bihar
4. (d)Mohd. Faruk v. State of M.P.

1. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

List-I:

A. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

B. Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain

C. Minerva Mills v. Union of India

D. I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu

List-II:

i. Basic structure doctrine created

ii. Basic structure doctrine strengthened

iii. Basic structure doctrine crystallised

iv. Basic structure doctrine - new dimensions added

Codes:

1. (a)A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1✓
2. (b)A-2, B-4, C-2, D-3
3. (c)A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
4. (d)A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

6. Assertion (A): An accused has the constitutional right to be informed of the nature and cause of accusation.

Reason (R): The accused must be presented before the nearest district judge within 24 hours.

1. (a)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. (b)Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. (c)A is false, but R is true
4. (d)A is true, but R is false✓

7. Assertion (A): Subject to the Constitution, Parliament may amend it by addition, variation or repeal following the procedure in this Article.

Reason (R): This statement is taken from Article 368(1) of the Constitution.

1. (a)Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A✓
2. (b)Both A and R are incorrect
3. (c)A is incorrect, but R is correct
4. (d)A is correct, but R is incorrect

2. Arrange the following landmark cases in the order in which they were pronounced by the Supreme Court:

Selvi v. State of Karnataka

Official Liquidator v. Dayananda

I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu

P.A. Inamdar v. State of Maharashtra

1. (a)4, 1, 3, 2
2. (b)4, 3, 2, 1✓
3. (c)3, 2, 4, 1
4. (d)2, 3, 4, 1

3. Which of the following statements is correct?

1. (a)Fundamental Duties are mandatory for all citizens.
2. (b)Fundamental Duties have always been part of the Constitution.
3. (c)Fundamental Duties were added through an amendment to the Constitution of India.✓
4. (d)Fundamental Duties can be enforced by writs.

5. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched with regard to provisions of the Constitution of India?

1. (a)Article 352 – Effect of proclamation of Emergency
2. (b)Article 353 – Revenue distribution during Emergency
3. (c)Article 354 – Executive power during Emergency
4. (d)Article 355 – Duty of the Union to protect States against aggression✓

6. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched with regard to constitutional amendments?

1. (a)The Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act – 1956
2. (b)The Constitution (Fourteenth Amendment) Act – 1962
3. (c)The Constitution (Thirty-first Amendment) Act – 1973
4. (d)The Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act – 1956✓

7. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

List-I (Legal Principles / Case Themes):

A. The principle of constructive res judicata is also applicable to writ petitions

B. Writ petition dismissed for want of prosecution can be restored

C. Direction given by the High Court under Article 226 cannot be altered by the State Government

D. The disposal of several writ petitions in a batch by a single order is permissible if facts are similar

List-II (Relevant Cases):

Women’s Education Trust v. State of Haryana

M. Nagabhushana v. State of Karnataka

Ratan Singh v. State of Rajasthan

V. Porukutty Mannadissior v. State of Kerala

Codes:

1. (a)A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
2. (b)A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2✓
3. (c)A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
4. (d)A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

1. 'Economic Justice' is one of the objectives of the Constitution of India. In which of the following parts is this objective specifically provided?

1. (a)Preamble and Fundamental Rights
2. (b)Preamble and Directive Principles of State Policy✓
3. (c)Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles
4. (d)Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles, and Fundamental Duties

2. Arrange the following Supreme Court cases in chronological order:

Union of India v. N.S. Rathnam and Others

Basawaraj v. Special Land Acquisition Officer

Usha Mehta v. Government of A.P.

City Industrial Development v. Platinum Entertainment

1. (a)3, 2, 4, 1✓
2. (b)2, 3, 4, 1
3. (c)4, 2, 3, 1
4. (d)2, 3, 1, 4

3. Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct option:

Assertion (A): Article 40 of the Constitution directs the State to organize village Panchayats and endow them with the powers and authority necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government.

Reason (R): This directive ensures every village becomes an autonomous, self-sufficient republic capable of managing its own affairs.

1. (a)Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)✓
2. (b)Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (c)(A) is true, but (R) is false
4. (d)(A) is false, but (R) is true

5. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched with respect to the provisions of the Indian Constitution?

1. (a)Article 118 – Duration of Parliament
2. (b)Article 119 – Restriction on discussion in Parliament
3. (c)Article 120 – Language to be used in Parliament✓
4. (d)Article 121 – Courts not to inquire into the proceedings of Parliament

1. Which of the following is not included in the definition of law under Article 13 of Constitution of India?

1. (a)Legislation
2. (b)Customs
3. (c)Usage having no force of law✓
4. (d)Ordinance

2. Which Article of the Constitution uses the term 'martial law'?

1. (a)Article 33
2. (b)Article 34✓
3. (c)Article 352
4. (d)Article 353

6. Which of the following case is not related to the 'Theory of Basic Structure' under Article 368?

1. (a)Minerva Mills v. Union of India
2. (b)Waman Rao v. Union of India
3. (c)L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India
4. (d)T.K. Rangarajan v. Government of Tamil Nadu✓

12. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

It is the duty of every citizen to respect the country and abide by the Constitution.

All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.

The state shall in particular, take steps for preserving and improving the breeds, and prohibiting the slaughter of cows and calves and other milch and draught cattle..

No law here after enacted by legislature of J&K shall be void on the ground that it is inconsistent with any right conferred on other citizens of India by any provision of Part III of the Constitution.

1. (a)Only 1 and 2 are correct
2. (b)Only 3 and 4 are correct
3. (c)1, 2 and 3 are correct
4. (d)1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct✓

16. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that where the selection process consists solely of viva-voce, no upper limit is required for interview marks?

1. (a)A.K. Roy v. Union of India
2. (b)A.P. State Financial Corporation v. C.M. Ashok Raju✓
3. (c)Sambhu Nath Sarkar v. State of West Bengal
4. (d)P. Lakhanpal v. Union of India

The solemn resolution in the Preamble of the Constitution of India is made in the name of the people of India.

The Preamble of the Constitution of India solemnly resolves to secure to its people Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties, and Directive Principles.

1. (a)Only 1 and 2 are correct
2. (b)Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
3. (c)Only 1 and 3 are correct✓
4. (d)Only 3 and 4 are correct

2. Which of the following statements are correct?

Doctrine of Severability applies when certain provisions of an Act are declared invalid and affect the rest of the Act.

The prospective character of Article 13(1) gives rise to the Doctrine of Eclipse.

The American doctrine of waiver of Fundamental Rights is part of the Indian Constitution.

Doctrine of prospective overruling was not applied in I.C. Golaknath v. State of Punjab.

1. (a)Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
2. (b)Only 2, 3 and 4 are correct
3. (c)Only 2 is correct✓
4. (d)Only 4 is correct

3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer.

A. M. Nagaraj v. Union of India – 2. To provide reservations in promotions for SC/ST

B. Indira Sawhney v. Union of India – 3. Application of creamy layer to OBC quota

C. Mohini Jain v. State of Karnataka – 4. On capitation fees

D. A.K. Roy v. Union of India – 1. Case on national security

1. (a)3 1 4 2
2. (b)2 3 4 1✓
3. (c)2 4 1 3
4. (d)4 1 2 3

4. Which constitutional amendment accorded primacy to the Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights?

1. (a)24th Amendment
2. (b)25th Amendment
3. (c)42nd Amendment✓
4. (d)44th Amendment

8. Which of the following statements are correct?

In Harvinder Kaur v. Harmander Singh, personal law was upheld as not violating gender equality.

Selvi v. State of Karnataka dealt with rights of transgender persons.

Shreya Singhal v. Union of India dealt with freedom of speech and expression.

Sarla Mudgal v. Union of India addressed rights of converted Christian women.

1. (a)Only 1 and 2 are correct
2. (b)Only 2 and 3 are correct
3. (c)Only 2 and 4 are correct
4. (d)Only 3 and 4 are correct✓

11. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below.

List-I (Case Name) | List-II (Legal Principle/Outcome)

A. K.L.N.V. Veeranjaneyulu v. Union of India & Others – 2. Every author has a fundamental right to speak out ideas freely and express thoughts adequately

B. Abhiram Singh v. C.D. Commachen (Dead) by LRS and Others – 4. Seeking votes in the name of religion or caste is a corrupt practice

C. Pawan Kumar v. State of H.P. – 1. Women's right to love and reject

D. Bimolangshu Roy (Dead) Through LRS v. State of Assam and Others – 3. States are not empowered to create the office of Parliamentary Secretary

Code:

1. (a)A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
2. (b)A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3✓
3. (c)A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
4. (d)A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

1. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court state that Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles aim at the same goal of bringing social revolution and the establishment of a Welfare State, and they can be interpreted and applied together and they are supplementary and complementary to each other?

1. (a)Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
2. (b)Re Kerala Education Bill
3. (c)Minerva Mills v. Union of India
4. (d)Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala✓

11. Read both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer using the code below:

Assertion (A): Under the Indian Constitution, an Amendment Bill passed by both Houses of Parliament by the required majority shall be presented to the President, who shall give his assent, and thereupon the Constitution shall stand amended.

Reason (R): The President is bound to give his assent to the Bill.

Codes:

1. (a)Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)✓
2. (b)Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (c)(A) is correct but (R) is wrong
4. (d)(A) is wrong but (R) is correct

12. “A citizen has a fundamental right to use the best means of imparting and receiving information and as such to have an access to telecasting for the purpose.” This was the observation of the Supreme Court in which of the following cases?

1. (a)Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, Government of India v. Cricket Association of Bengal (1995)✓
2. (b)Prabhu Dutt v. Union of India (1982)
3. (c)Dinesh Trivedi v. Union of India (1977)
4. (d)Pramati Educational and Cultural Trust v. Union of India (2014)

1. Constitution of India requires the State to adopt the Protectionist Policy and Improvinistic Policy. Which one of the following Articles declares the above?

1. (a)Article 51A(g)
2. (b)Article 38
3. (c)Article 48A✓
4. (d)Article 37

6. Arrange the following judgments of the Supreme Court on the constitutionality of the death penalty in chronological order:

Rajendra Prasad v. State of UP

Machhi Singh v. State of Punjab

Jagmohan Singh v. State of UP

Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab

1. (a)1, 2, 3, 4
2. (b)3, 2, 1, 4
3. (c)4, 3, 2, 1
4. (d)3, 1, 4, 2✓

7. The expression "Minority" is a relative term and refers to linguistic or religious groups forming less than 50% of the population. This view was stated by the Supreme Court in:

1. (a)T.M.A. Pai Foundation v. State of Karnataka✓
2. (b)P.A. Inamdar v. State of Maharashtra
3. (c)Islamic Academy v. State of Karnataka
4. (d)Usha Mehta v. State of Maharashtra

8. “The provisions of the Constitution are not mathematical formulas… but organic living institutions…” — This observation was made by:

1. (a)Schwartz
2. (b)Holmes, C.J.✓
3. (c)S.A. de Smith
4. (d)Lord Russel

10. Legal sovereignty in India resides in the Constitution itself and not in 'We the People of India'. This idea was expressed by the Supreme Court in:

1. (a)Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala✓
2. (b)Golaknath v. State of Punjab
3. (c)State of West Bengal v. Union of India
4. (d)Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan

12. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that any executive, legislative, or judicial action which contravenes Article 14 is void?

1. (a)Amir Abbas v. State of M.B.
2. (b)Naresh Mirajkar v. State of Maharashtra
3. (c)Budhan v. State of Bihar✓
4. (d)Himmatlal v. State of M.P.

14. Match the following Supreme Court cases with their subject matter:

Options:

1. (a)1 2 3 4
2. (b)1 3 4 2
3. (c)3 1 4 2✓
4. (d)2 4 3 1

15. On which of the following grounds can a restriction be imposed on the freedom of religion under Article 25(1) of the Constitution?

1. (a)Public order, decency and morality
2. (b)In the interest of general public
3. (c)Public order, morality and health✓
4. (d)In the interest of general public and for protection of Scheduled Tribe

16. Rule of law is recognized under which Article of the Indian Constitution?

1. (a)Article 14✓
2. (b)Article 19
3. (c)Article 21
4. (d)Article 22

18. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that the Preamble is not a part of the Constitution?

1. (a)Buckingham and Carnatic Co. Ltd. v. Venkiah
2. (b)Keshavananda Bharati Case
3. (c)Golaknath v. State of Punjab
4. (d)In re Berubari Case✓

3. Match List I with List II regarding important cases and their subject matter:

Correct Pairing:

1. (a)A-(I), B-(II), C-(III), D-(IV)
2. (b)A-(II), B-(I), C-(IV), D-(III)
3. (c)A-(III), B-(I), C-(IV), D-(II)✓
4. (d)A-(IV), B-(III), C-(II), D-(I)

4. Arrange the following Supreme Court cases chronologically:

A. Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation

B. Francis Coralie v. Union Territory of Delhi

C. Satwant Singh v. Passport Officer

D. Kharak Singh v. State of U.P.

E. NALSA v. Union of India

1. (a)C, D, A, E, B
2. (b)A, B, C, D, E
3. (c)B, D, A, E, C
4. (d)D, C, B, A, E✓

5. Under Article 30 of the Indian Constitution, which of the following statements are correct?

(A) Rights are guaranteed only to religious minorities

(B) Rights are guaranteed to linguistic and religious minorities

(C) Right is given only to administer educational institutions

(D) Right is given to minorities to establish and administer educational institutions

(E) The State is prohibited from discriminating in grant of aid based on minority management

1. (a)A and E only
2. (b)B and C only
3. (c)B, D and E only✓
4. (d)C and E only

10. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution?

1. (a)Re Berubari Union Case
2. (b)Minerva Mills v. Union of India
3. (c)Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala✓
4. (d)S.R. Bommai v. Union of India

8. The referred paragraph is taken from the judgement of the Supreme Court in –

1. (a)A.D.M. Jabalpur v. S. Shukla
2. (b)Mohini Jain v. State of Karnataka
3. (c)Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
4. (d)Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) and another v. Union of India and others✓

9. In which of the following cases was it held that right to privacy is not protected as a fundamental right under the Constitution?

1. (a)M.P. Sharma v. Satish Chandra, District Magistrate, Delhi✓
2. (b)Govind v. State of M.P.
3. (c)R. Rajagopal v. State of Tamil Nadu
4. (d)K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India

10. Which one of the following statements is correct?

1. (a)Right to privacy is expressly provided as a fundamental right under the Constitution
2. (b)Right to privacy is protected as a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Constitution✓
3. (c)Right to privacy is not protected as a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Constitution
4. (d)Article 21 of the Constitution protects the life and personal liberty only from executive action

11. The referred paragraph is a part of the judgement delivered by –

1. (a)Justice Chelameshwar
2. (b)Justice D.Y. Chandrachud✓
3. (c)Justice S.A. Bobde
4. (d)Justice F.M. Nariman

12. In which of the following cases was it held that the "procedure established by law" must be just, fair, and reasonable?

1. (a)Kharak Singh v. State of U.P.
2. (b)A.K. Gopalan v. Union of India
3. (c)Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India✓
4. (d)Govind v. State of M.P.

3. Arrange the following cases chronologically (from earliest to latest):

(A) National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India

(B) Naz Foundation v. Government of NCT of Delhi

(C) Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India

(D) Suresh Kaushal v. Naz Foundation

(E) The cases of Navtej Singh Johar and Suresh Kaushal were decided in the same year

Options:

1. (a)C, E, B, D
2. (b)D, B, A, C
3. (c)B, D, A, C✓
4. (d)E, D, A, B

4. Under Article 338(5) of the Constitution of India, the National Commission for Scheduled Castes has –

1. (a)The power to issue caste certificates
2. (b)The power to revoke caste certificates
3. (c)The power to decide the validity of caste certificates
4. (d)No power to issue/revoke certificates and no power to decide upon the validity of caste certificates✓

6. Every state and every local authority within the state is required to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups under:

1. (a)Article 350
2. (b)Article 350A✓
3. (c)Article 350B
4. (d)Article 351

8.

Assertion (A): Ex post-facto laws are those which declare an act to be an offence and punishable, although it was lawful when committed.

Reason (R): Imposing or increasing a penalty retrospectively under a taxing statute does not violate Article 20(1).

9.

Which of the following is not applicable under Article 13 of the Constitution of India?

1. (a)Any legislation made by Parliament under Article 245
2. (b)Any legislation made by Parliament under Article 253 for giving effect to international agreements
3. (c)Any constitutional amendment made under Article 368✓
4. (d)Custom and usage

11. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer:

A. Judicial Review → II. Keshavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

B. Free and Fair Elections → I. Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narayan

C. Balance between Part III and Part IV → IV. Minerva Mills Ltd v. Union of India

D. Secularism → III. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India

14. In which one of the following cases was legal aid held as a fundamental right?

1. (a)Sunil Batra case
2. (b)M.H. Hoskot case✓
3. (c)Prem Shankar Shukla case
4. (d)Keshvananda Bharati case

8. Match the following constitutional provisions with their corresponding Articles:

List-I:

A. Promotion of International Peace and Security

B. Conduct of Business of the Government of India

C. Special Address by the Governor

D. Language to be used in the Legislature

List-II:

I. Article 210

II. Article 176

III. Article 77

IV. Article 51

9. Arrange the following Supreme Court cases in chronological order (from oldest to most recent):

A. Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan

B. Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachilhu

C. L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India

D. Minerva Mills v. Union of India

E. Azeez Basha v. Union of India

6. Which of the following are included under Constitutional Remedies?

A. Extraordinary remedies under Articles 32 and 226

B. Appeals to Supreme Court under Articles 132 to 135

C. Appeals to High Court under Article 139 and 139A

D. Transfer of cases to Supreme Court under Article 139B

E. Advisory jurisdiction under Article 143

1. (a)A, C and D only
2. (b)A, B and E only✓
3. (c)B, C and D only
4. (d)C, D and E only

7. Under Article 15 of the Constitution of India, special provisions can be made for which of the following groups?

A. Women and children

B. Scheduled Tribes

C. Economically weaker sections

D. Socially backward classes

E. Linguistic minorities

1. (a)A, C, B and E only
2. (b)B, C, D and E only
3. (c)A, B, C and D only✓
4. (d)A, B, C and E only

9. Match the following Directive Principles with the corresponding Articles:

A. Equal justice and free legal aid – I. Article 39A

B. Promotion of co-operative societies – II. Article 43B

C. Living wages for workers – III. Article 43

D. Uniform civil code – IV. Article 44

1. (a)A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
2. (b)A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
3. (c)A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV✓
4. (d)A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

10. In which case was the doctrine of 'Prospective Overruling' first applied in India?

1. (a)S.P. Gupta v. Union of India
2. (b)I.C. Golaknath v. State of Punjab✓
3. (c)Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration
4. (d)M.C. Mehta v. Union of India

11. Which of the following are fundamental rights under the Indian Constitution?

A. Right not to remain employed

B. Right not to remain uneducated

C. Right not to remain unmarried

D. Right not to be killed without trial

E. Right not to change religion

1. (a)B, D and E only✓
2. (b)A, C and D only
3. (c)A, D and E only
4. (d)B, C and E only

12. Which of the following select combinations from the Preamble are in the correct order?

1. (a)“Fraternity assuring the integrity”
2. (b)“Fraternity assuring the dignity”✓
3. (c)“Fraternity assuring the unity”
4. (d)“Fraternity assuring the unity and integrity”

14. Under Article 51 of the Constitution of India, the State is directed to endeavour to:

1. (a)Promote international peace and security
2. (b)Maintain just and honorable relations between nations✓
3. (c)Foster respect for international law and treaty obligations
4. (d)Protect and improve the environment and safeguard forests

(e) Encourage settlement of international disputes through arbitration

Which of the above are included in Article 51?

1. (a)A, B, C and D only
2. (b)A, B, C and E only✓
3. (c)B, C, D and E only
4. (d)A, C, B and D only

1. Art. 28 of the Constitution of India mentions four types of educational institutions. In which of the following can religious instruction be imparted with consent of the individual or otherwise?

(A) Institution wholly maintained by the state

(B) Institution recognised by the state

(C) Institution receiving aid out of state fund

(D) Institution administered by the state but established under any trust or endowment

Options:

1. (a)(A), (B), (C) only
2. (b)(B), (C), (D) only✓
3. (c)(A), (C), (D) only
4. (d)(A), (B), (D) only

2. The Preamble of the Constitution of India:

Options:

1. (a)can be amended✓
2. (b)cannot be amended
3. (c)can be amended only by the Supreme Court
4. (d)cannot be amended because it is a part of the basic structure of the Constitution

3. Arrange the following cases in the sequence of their year of verdict:

(A) Kesavananda Bharti v. State of Kerala

(B) Sankari Prasad v. Union of India

(C) Golak Nath v. State of Punjab

(D) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan

Options:

1. (a)(B), (D), (C), (A)✓
2. (b)(A), (B), (C), (D)
3. (c)(C), (D), (B), (A)
4. (d)(A), (D), (B), (C)

4. Which among the following provisions of the Constitution of India mandates criminalisation of prohibited conduct?

Options:

1. (a)Article 17 only
2. (b)Article 23 only
3. (c)Article 17 and 23 only✓
4. (d)Article 17, 23 and 24

5. Match List I with List II.

List I:

(A) Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar

(B) Kadra Pehadiya v. State of Bihar

(C) M. H. Hoskot v. State of Maharashtra

(D) Khatri v. State of Bihar

List II:

(1) 1981

(2) 1980

(3) 1979

(4) 1978

Options:

1. (a)(A)-(3), (B)-(1), (C)-(2), (D)-(4)
2. (b)(A)-(4), (B)-(3), (C)-(2), (D)-(1)
3. (c)(A)-(1), (B)-(2), (C)-(3), (D)-(4)
4. (d)(A)-(3), (B)-(2), (C)-(4), (D)-(1)✓

6. Match List I with List II.

List I:

(A) Linkletter v. Walker

(B) Golak Nath v. State of Punjab

(C) Jolly George Varghese v. Bank of Cochin

(D) People's Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India

List II:

(1) Prospective overruling in constitutional law

(2) Right to register "none of the above"

(3) Importation of ICCPR rights into Indian law

(4) Prospective overruling in criminal procedure

Options:

1. (a)(A)-(2), (B)-(1), (C)-(4), (D)-(3)
2. (b)(A)-(1), (B)-(4), (C)-(2), (D)-(3)
3. (c)(A)-(4), (B)-(2), (C)-(3), (D)-(1)
4. (d)(A)-(4), (B)-(1), (C)-(3), (D)-(2)✓

7. Which Articles deal with protection of environment and/or cultural places?

(A) Article 51A(g)

(B) Article 40

(C) Article 48A

(D) Article 51A(j)

(E) Article 49

Options:

1. (a)(A), (C) and (E) only✓
2. (b)(A), (B) and (C) only
3. (c)(C), (D) and (E) only
4. (d)(A), (C) and (D) only

10. Which Article in the Constitution of India established the National Commission for the Scheduled Castes?

1. (a)Article 335
2. (b)Article 338✓
3. (c)Article 341
4. (d)Article 342A

11. The notion that every citizen must do his duty towards the nation as well as fellow citizens is incorporated in the Indian Constitution in:

1. (a)Part III
2. (b)Part IV
3. (c)Part IV A✓
4. (d)Preamble

12. Which is distinguished as the ‘Conscience’ of the Constitution?

1. (a)Fundamental Duties
2. (b)Preamble
3. (c)Universal adult suffrage
4. (d)Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles✓

13. The protection and enforcement of Human Rights under Article 32 is confined in India to:

1. (a)Fundamental Rights✓
2. (b)Economic, Social and Cultural Rights
3. (c)Fundamental Duties
4. (d)Right to Vote

14. Which of the following is part of the basic feature of the Constitution?

1. (a)Fundamental Duties
2. (b)Directive policies
3. (c)Political process and decision making
4. (d)Harmony and balance between Part III and Part IV✓

15. Which Part of the Constitution of India discusses the vision of the Constitution and its framers as to what kind of society they aspired to establish in the country?

1. (a)Article 51A
2. (b)Part III and Part IV
3. (c)Part IV only✓
4. (d)Part dealing with affirmative steps

2. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Judicial Decisions)

(A) Sri Srinivasa Theatre v. Govt. of T.N

(B) K. A. Abbas v. Union of India

(C) Selvi v. State of Karnataka

(D) Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra v. State of U.P

List-II (Fundamental Rights)

(I) Article 20(3) of the Constitution

(II) Right to Environment

(III) Equality before Law

(IV) Censorship

Options:

1. (a)A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
2. (b)A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II✓
3. (c)A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
4. (d)A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

4. Arrange the following reasonable restrictions under Article 19(2) in their chronological order:

(A) Contempt of court

(B) Incitement to an offence

(C) Public order

(D) Security of the State

(E) Friendly relations with Foreign States

Options:

1. (a)A, E, B, C, D
2. (b)D, E, C, A, B
3. (c)D, A, B, C, E✓
4. (d)D, C, B, E, A

5. Arrange the following cases in chronological order of their verdicts:

(A) Vineet Narain v. Union of India

(B) Kesavananda Bharti v. State of Kerala

(C) Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India

(D) D. K. Basu v. State of West Bengal

Options:

1. (a)A, B, C, D
2. (b)B, C, A, D
3. (c)D, A, B, C
4. (d)B, C, D, A✓

8. M. K. Ranjit Singh v. Union of India (2024) deals with which of the following issue?

1. (a)Preservation of biodiversity and climate change✓
2. (b)Immigrants and refugees
3. (c)Offence against children
4. (d)Cyber crimes

9. In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that Section 309 of IPC is not unconstitutional and not violative of Articles 21 and 14 of the Constitution?

1. (a)P. Rathinam v. Union of India
2. (b)Aruna Ramchandra Shanbaug v. Union of India
3. (c)M.S. Dubal v. State of Maharashtra
4. (d)Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab✓

12. In which of the following cases was it held that the Preamble of the Constitution emphasizes the need to secure to all citizens Justice, Liberty, Equality and Fraternity?

1. (a)Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
2. (b)K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India✓
3. (c)National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India
4. (d)E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu

13. Arrange in chronological order the following Fundamental Duties as they appear in the Constitution of India:

(A) To safeguard public property and abjure violence

(B) To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture

(C) To develop scientific temper

(D) To defend the country and render national service

Options:

1. (a)D, A, B, C
2. (b)A, C, D, B
3. (c)D, C, B, A
4. (d)D, B, C, A✓

1. Match List I with List II.

List I (Case Law)

(A) Birma v. State of Rajasthan

(B) NHRC v. State of Arunachal Pradesh

(C) Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan

(D) People's Union for Democratic Rights v. Union of India

List II (Theme)

(I) Safeguard interest of working women

(II) Enforcement of rights under international conventions

(III) Employment of children in construction work

(IV) Rights of refugees

Options:

1. (a)(A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
2. (b)(A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)✓
3. (c)(A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
4. (d)(A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)

2. Which of the following groupings of Fundamental Rights is incorrectly placed according to Articles?

1. (a)Right to Equality (Art 14–18)
2. (b)Right to Constitutional Remedies (Art 32–35A)
3. (c)Right to Freedom of Religion (Art 25–28)
4. (d)Right Against Exploitation (Art 23–24)✓

5. Arrange the following provisions in correct order as they appear in the Indian Constitution:

(A) Executive Power of State

(B) Term of Office of Governor

(C) Appointment of Governor

(D) Qualifications for Appointment as Governor

(E) Governor of State

Options:

1. (a)(E), (A), (C), (B), (D)✓
2. (b)(C), (D), (E), (B), (A)
3. (c)(A), (B), (C), (D), (E)
4. (d)(E), (C), (D), (A), (B)

7. The word "Secular" was added to the Preamble by which Amendment?

1. (a)42nd Amendment Act, 1976✓
2. (b)44th Amendment Act, 1978
3. (c)24th Amendment Act, 1971
4. (d)72nd Amendment Act, 1992

8. Match List I with List II.

List I (Provisions)

(A) Early childhood care for under 6

(B) Promotion of educational and economic interest of SC/ST

(C) Free and compulsory education for 6–14 years

(D) Special provision for economically weaker sections

List II (Article)

(I) Article 46

(II) Article 21A

(III) Article 45

(IV) Article 15(6)

Options:

1. (a)(A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)✓
2. (b)(A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
3. (c)(A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
4. (d)(A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

9. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that passive euthanasia can be allowed under exceptional circumstances under strict court monitoring?

1. (a)Aruna Ramchandra Shanbaug v. Union of India✓
2. (b)Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab
3. (c)P. Rathinam v. Union of India
4. (d)Arayakkamdy v. State

11. Arrange the following Fundamental Duties in the order as mentioned under Article 51A:

(A) To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture

(B) To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle

(C) To safeguard public property and abjure violence

(D) To develop scientific temper, humanism and inquiry

(E) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India

Options:

1. (a)(C), (D), (B), (E), (A)
2. (b)(B), (E), (A), (D), (C)✓
3. (c)(A), (B), (C), (E), (D)
4. (d)(B), (E), (C), (A), (D)

Under Article 14 of the Indian Constitution, the term 'Equal Protection of the Laws has been taken from the

1. (a)American Constitution✓
2. (b)British Constitution
3. (c)Australian Consititution
4. (d)Canadian Constituion

The provision given under Article 13 of the Indian Constitution are as follows

A. All laws in force in the territory of Indian immediately before the commencement of this constitution will be void to the extent of the inconsistency

B. 'Laws in force' includes all laws passed or made by the legislature or other competent authority in the territory on India before the commencement of this constituion and not previously repeated

C. The state shall not make any law which takes or abridges right conferred by Part III and any law made in the contravention shall be void

D. 'Law' does not include any ordinance, order, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage etc

E. Article 13 shall apply to any amendment of the Constitution made under Article 368

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)B and D only
2. (b)D and E only
3. (c)A and E only
4. (d)A, B and C only✓

Which one of the following judges were part of the judgement referred to in the paragarph

1. (a)J. Deepak Mishra✓
2. (b)J.R.F. Nariman
3. (c)Dr. D.Y. Chandrachud
4. (d)J. Indu Malhotra

The above paragraph reflects the judgements in case of

1. (a)Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India✓
2. (b)Machi Singh v. State of Punjab
3. (c)Sate of U.P v. Ram Swaroop
4. (d)Chairman Railway Board v. Chandrima Das

The fundamental right of the freedom of expression is contained in the following articles of the Indian Constitution

1. (a)Article 19 (1) (a)✓
2. (b)Article 19 (1) (f)
3. (c)Article 18 (1)
4. (d)Article 21

The consensual sexual act of an adult is criminalised under which of the following legislations

1. (a)Indian Penal Code✓
2. (b)POSCO
3. (c)Criminal Law (Amendment) 2013
4. (d)Hindu Marriage Act, 1955

Discrimination on the basis of sexual orientation is violative of which of the following fundamental rights

1. (a)Article 21 only
2. (b)Article 14, 15 only
3. (c)Article 14, 19
4. (d)Article 14,15,19,21✓

Which of the following statements are correct?

(1) The Preamble contains in nutshell ideals and aspirations of the Constitution

(2) The Preamble is the key to open the minds of the Constitution makers

(3) The Preamble to the Constitution of India is solemnly resolved to secure to its citizens justice and equity

(4) The Preamble is not the part of the Constituent

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)(1) and (2) only✓
2. (b)(3) and (4) only
3. (c)(1) and (3) only
4. (d)(1) and (2) only

The Hicklin test under Article 19(2) is related to

1. (a)Defamation
2. (b)Decency and morality✓
3. (c)Integrity of India
4. (d)Negligence

The Supreme Court of India in State of Bihar V. Kameshwar Singh (1952) laid down certain test for discovering whether any particular act constitutes a colourable legislation

A. The court must look into whether a legislature used wide or vague words or not which may extend the operation of an Act to subject?

B. The court must look into the substance of the law and not to its form or the label which the legislature has given it

C. The court must look at the object as well as the effect of the law

D. If the legislature proceeds under a legislative plan the court must read all the statutes constituting that plan and determine the combined effect

E. The court must look into that repugnancy is in existance?

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1. (a)A and B only
2. (b)B, C and D only✓
3. (c)A, C, D and E only
4. (d)D and E only

Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II

A. X. V/s Principal secretary, Health and Family Welfare Development, NCT Delhi (2022) I Collaborative Federal Structure

B. Union of India V/s M/s Mohit Minerals through Director (2022) II All women, whether married and unmarried are entitled to safe and legal abortion

C. Sahara India Real Estate Ltd. v/s SEBI (2012) III Postponement of publication

D. NCT of Delhi V/s Union of India (2018) IV Uncooperative federalism

I II

I -II

A. , , r (2022) I

B. (2022) II. b

C. (2012) III

D. (2018) IV

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
2. (b)A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
3. (c)A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
4. (d)A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I✓

Consider the following cases decided by the Supreme Court of India and arrange them in correct sequence of the year of the judgments

(Old to New)

A. Navtej Singh Jauhar v. Union of India

B. Rupa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra

C. Sayra Bano v. Union of India

D. Selvi v. State of Karnataka

E. Shankri Prasad v. Union of India

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)A, B, C, D, E
2. (b)E, D, C, B, A
3. (c)E, B, D, C, A✓
4. (d)D, E, C, A, B

According to Kaushal Kishore v. State of UP (2023) the fundamental right under article 19 is available against

1. (a)State actors only
2. (b)Non state actors only
3. (c)State as well as non state actors✓
4. (d)State under article 12 only

From which country is Part IV of the Indian Constitution borrowed?

1. (a)Russia
2. (b)Ireland✓
3. (c)USA
4. (d)Spain

In which of the following case, the Supreme Court of India struck down Section 66A of the Information Technology Act, 2000 as unconstitutional?

1. (a)Shreya Singhal v. Union of India✓
2. (b)Ajay Canu v. Union of India
3. (c)Tata Cellular v. Union of India
4. (d)Supreme Court Bar Association v. Union of India

Which Amendment inserted 'Secularism, Socialism, and Integrity' into the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?

1. (a)44th Amendment
2. (b)42nd Amendment✓
3. (c)73rd Amendment
4. (d)74th Amendment

In which case did the Supreme Court of India hold that telephone tapping is a serious invasion of an individual's right to privacy?

1. (a)People's Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India✓
2. (b)R. Rajagopal v. State of Tamil Nadu
3. (c)Mr. 'X' v. Hospital 'Z'
4. (d)State of Maharashtra v. Madhukar Narayan

National Commission for Minority Educational Institution Act was enacted by the Parliament in which year?

1. (a)1992
2. (b)1995
3. (c)2002
4. (d)2004✓

Which of the following cases deal with the interpretation of the 'personal liberty' under Article 21 of the Constitution of India?

A. Kharak Singh V/s State of U.P

B. Mohini Jain V/s State of Karnataka

C. Maneka Gandhi V/s Union of India

D. A.K. Gopalan V/s Union of India

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)A, B, C only
2. (b)A, B only
3. (c)A, C, D only✓
4. (d)B, C, D only

Arrange the following in the order in which they appear in the Preamble to the Indian Constitution

A. Equality

B. Justice

C. Liberty

D. Fraternity

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)A, B, C, D
2. (b)B, C, D, A
3. (c)B, C, A, D✓
4. (d)C, B, D, A

Arrange the following cases in their chronological order

A. Sankari Prasad V/s Union of India

B. Sajjan Singh V/s State of Rajasthan

C. Golak Nath V/s State of Punjab

D. Kesavananda Bharati V/s State of Kerala

E. Waman Rao V/s Union of India

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)A, B, C, D, E✓
2. (b)E, D, C, B, A
3. (c)A, B, D, C, E
4. (d)D, E, A, B, C

In educational institutions, reservations of seats in favor of the Scheduled Casts and the Scheduled Tribes is governed by which Article of the Constitution of India?

1. (a)Article 21-A
2. (b)Article 19
3. (c)Article 15✓
4. (d)Article 16

Under Clause (3)(a) of Article 13 of the Constitution of India, "Law" includes

1. (a)Rule, Regulation, bye-law, order, notification, custom or usage
2. (b)Act, ordinance, order, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage
3. (c)Ordinance, order, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage
4. (d)Ordinance, order, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage✓

Arrange the following cases chronologically (starting from earliest to the latest)

A. Minerva Mills Ltd. V/s Union of India

B. Samsher Singh V/s State of Punjab

C. S.P Anand V/s H. D. Deve Gowda

D. U.N.R. Rao V/s Smt. Indira Gandhi

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)D, B, A, C✓
2. (b)D, B, C, A
3. (c)C, B, A, D
4. (d)A, B, C, D

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: Article 30 of Constitution of India confers a right on all minorities to establish and administer educational institutions

Reason R: The right to establish and administer educational institutions by the minorities is based solely on religion. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1. (a)Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
2. (b)Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explantion of A
3. (c)A is correct but R is not correct✓
4. (d)A is not correct but R is correct

Arrange the following cases of the Supreme Court on Right to Privacy in their ascending order

A. R. Rajagopal v. State of Tamil Nadu

B. Kharak Singh v. State of UP

C. Govind v. State of M.P

D. Malak Singh v. State of Punjab

E. PUCL v. UOI

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)E, A, D, C, B
2. (b)B, C, A, D, E
3. (c)B, C, D, A, E✓
4. (d)C, B, D, E, A

Match List I with List II LIST I LIST II

A. Right against Public Hanging I. Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administation

B. Right against Delayed Execution II. Charles Gurumukh Sobhraj v. Delhi Administration

C. Right against Bar Fetters III. Attorney General of India v. Lakhma Devi

D. Right against Solitary Confinement IV. T. V. Vatheeswaran v. State of Tamil Nadu

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I✓
2. (b)A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
3. (c)A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
4. (d)A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Match List I with List II LIST I LIST II

A. State of West Bengal v. Anwar Ali Sarkar (1952) I. Viva Voice Test

B. Ashok Kumar Yadav v. State of Haryana (1985) II. Transgender

C. National Legal Service Authority v. Union of India (2014) III. Special Court for Speedier Trial

D. Dinesh Trivedi v. UOI (1997) IV. Right to Know

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV✓
2. (b)A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
3. (c)A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
4. (d)A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

In which of the following case the Supreme Court went on to hold that the "width of power test" or direct impact and effect test" should be used to see, if a constitutional amendment violates the basic structure of the Constitution?

1. (a)Kesavananda Bharti v. State of Kerala (1973)
2. (b)Ashok Thakur v. UOI (2005)
3. (c)In re Presidential reference Case (1999)
4. (d)Supreme Court Advocate on Record Association v. UOI (2016)✓

Consider the following statement relating to Uniform Civil Code under the Constitution of India

A. Article 44 mandate State of secure for all person, a Uniform Civil Code

B. Article 44 mandate State to secure for the citizen of India, a Uniform Civil Code throughout India

C. In Mohd. Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begum, the Court ruled that Muslim husband is liable to pay maintenance to the divorced wife upto iddat period

D. In Danial Latifi v. UOI, the Court ruled that Muslim husband is liable to make provision for the future of wife even after Iddat period

E. In Sarla Mudgal v. UOI, the Court said that Article 44 is based on a concept that there is no necessary relation between religion and personal Law in civilized society

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)A, D and E only
2. (b)B, D and E only✓
3. (c)B, C, D and E only
4. (d)A, C, D and E only

3. Which one of the following privileges is guaranteed to the President of India under Article 361 of the Constitution?

1. (a)Not to participate in Parliamentary proceedings
2. (b)He is answerable to the Chief Justice of India
3. (c)He is not to be answerable to any Court during his term✓
4. (d)Can address both Houses of Parliament during a joint session

5. Who has the power to dissolve the House of the People (Lok Sabha)?

1. (a)The Council of Ministers
2. (b)The Prime Minister
3. (c)The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
4. (d)The President✓

5. The satisfaction of the President means the satisfaction of the Council of Ministers and not his personal satisfaction, held in:

1. (a)Samsher Singh v. State of Punjab✓
2. (b)U.N. Roy v. Indira Gandhi
3. (c)Ram Jawaya Kapoor v. State of Punjab
4. (d)Sardar Lal v. Union Government

4. The Supreme Court held that Election Commissioners cannot be treated on par with the Chief Election Commissioner in:

1. (a)S.S. Dhanoa v. Union of India✓
2. (b)T.N. Seshan v. Union of India
3. (c)A.C. Jose v. Sivan Pillai
4. (d)Venkatachalam v. A. Swamichan

5. Which of the following is considered the authority of power in India?

1. (a)The Constitution of India✓
2. (b)The President of India
3. (c)The Parliament of India
4. (d)The Supreme Court of India

5. The power of the President of India to issue an ordinance is a —

1. (a)Legislative power✓
2. (b)Executive power
3. (c)Quasi-judicial power
4. (d)Judicial power

6. Read the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct answer:

Assertion (A): The Council of Ministers is the hub of the Parliamentary form of Government.

Reason (R): The Government is formed from the majority party.

1. (a)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)✓
2. (b)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
3. (c)(A) is true, (R) is false
4. (d)(A) is false, (R) is true

Q10. Under which Article of the Constitution is the President empowered to grant pardon?

1. (a)Article 72✓
2. (b)Article 74
3. (c)Article 76
4. (d)Article 78

Q16. Assertion (A): The Indian Constitution provides for a parliamentary form of government.

Reason (R): The President of India is directly elected by the people.

1. (a)Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
2. (b)Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
3. (c)A is true, but R is false✓
4. (d)A is false, but R is true

5. Match the following landmark cases with the related legal principles using the correct code:

A. Executive power must conform to the Constitution

B. Executive power is residual where there is no legislative or judicial power

C. Executive action can exist without legislative backing

D. The President is not bound to hear a petitioner before rejecting a mercy petition

Options:

1. (a)A – 4, B – 1, C – 2, D – 3✓
2. (b)A – 1, B – 4, C – 2, D – 3
3. (c)A – 4, B – 1, C – 3, D – 2
4. (d)A – 2, B – 3, C – 1, D – 4

7. Which constitutional amendment introduced the provision that the total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15% of the strength of the Lok Sabha?

1. (a)91st Amendment✓
2. (b)92nd Amendment
3. (c)93rd Amendment
4. (d)95th Amendment

6. If the Government is defeated on the floor of the Rajya Sabha, what is the consequence?

1. (a)Parliament is dissolved
2. (b)Prime Minister has to submit his resignation
3. (c)President’s rule is imposed
4. (d)Nothing happens✓

11. Match the following cases (List I) with the corresponding legal doctrines (List II):

List I:

A. Ram Jawaya Kapur v. State of Punjab

B. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

C. Vineet Narain v. Union of India

D. Union of India v. Hindustan Development Corporation

List II:

Doctrine of post-decisional hearing

Doctrine of public accountability

Doctrine of separation of powers

Doctrine of legitimate expectation

Codes:

1. (a)A–3, B–1, C–2, D–4✓
2. (b)A–4, B–2, C–1, D–3
3. (c)A–1, B–4, C–3, D–2
4. (d)A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4

3. Match the following:

A. S.R. Chaudhuri v. State of Punjab – 4. Non-member cannot be reappointed as minister if not elected within six months

B. Murali S. Devra v. Union of India – 1. Ban on smoking at public places

C. Food Corporation of India v. Bharatiya Khadya Nigam Karmachari Sangh – 2. Two extra increments to employees for higher qualification

D. Javed v. State of Haryana – 3. Disqualification on basis of number of children for panchayat election

1. (a)4 1 2 3✓
2. (b)4 2 1 3
3. (c)2 3 1 4
4. (d)3 2 4 1

6. In which of the following cases did Justice Pasayat hold that a pardon obtained on the basis of a manifest mistake or fraud can be rescinded?

1. (a)G. Krishna Goud v. State of Andhra Pradesh
2. (b)Maru Ram v. Union of India
3. (c)Epuru Sudhakar v. Government of Andhra Pradesh✓
4. (d)Kehar Singh v. Union of India

According to the convention of Parliamentary Democracy, the Prime Minister must be from the House of the People.

Article 83 of the Constitution deals with the duration of the Houses of Parliament.

1. (a)1, 2 and 3 are correct
2. (b)1, 3 and 4 are correct
3. (c)2, 3 and 4 are correct
4. (d)1, 2, 3 and 4 are all correct✓

5. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the office of the Governor?

Executive action taken in the name of the Governor is the executive action of the State.

The Governor cannot be held personally answerable for any portion of the address to the joint session.

The Governor is bound to exercise all his powers and functions on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers.

The Governor of a State shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.

1. (a)1, 2 and 4✓
2. (b)1, 3 and 4
3. (c)2, 3 and 4
4. (d)1, 2 and 3

6. Justice Mukherjee, speaking for the court, stated that although the executive power is vested in the President, he is only a formal head, and real power lies with the Council of Ministers. This was held in which case?

1. (a)U.N.R. Rao v. Indira Gandhi
2. (b)Ram Jawaya Kapur v. State of Punjab✓
3. (c)Jayantilal Amratlal Shodhan v. F.N. Rao
4. (d)Sardarilal v. Union of India

4. Assertion (A): No person is eligible for appointment as Governor unless he is a citizen of India and has completed the age of thirty-five years.

Reason (R): The Governor is debarred from holding any other office of profit during his term of office.

1. (a)Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
2. (b)Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A✓
3. (c)A is true, but R is false
4. (d)A is false, but R is true

4. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

The election of the President shall be held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of single non-transferable vote.

The President may resign by writing under his hand addressed to the Chief Justice of India.

No resolution to remove the Vice-President shall be moved unless at least thirty days notice has been given.

The Vice-President shall, notwithstanding the expiration of his term, continue to hold office until his successor enters upon his office.

1. (a)1, 2, 3 and 4 are incorrect
2. (b)1, 2 and 3 are incorrect✓
3. (c)Only 1 and 2 are incorrect
4. (d)Only 1 is incorrect

5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct code:

A. K.M. Nanavati v. State of Bombay – 2. Power to pardon

B. Ram Prasad v. State of U.P. – 3. Fundamental Duties

C. Lily Thomas v. Union of India – 4. Disqualification of members

D. Dr. P. Nallar Thampy Terah v. Union of India – 1. Right to life

7. In which case did the Supreme Court rule that placing an ordinance before the legislature is mandatory, and repeated promulgation is a fraud on the Constitution?

1. (a)Krishna Kumar Singh v. State of Bihar✓
2. (b)R.K. Garg v. Union of India
3. (c)Maru Ram v. Union of India
4. (d)K.M. Nanavati v. State of Bombay

9. Assertion (A): The Council of Ministers holds office during the pleasure of the President of India.

Reason (R): The President of India can dismiss Ministers at his discretion.

1. (a)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. (b)Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (c)(A) is true, but (R) is false✓
4. (d)(A) is false, but (R) is true

2. In which case did the Supreme Court rule that a Governor cannot exercise the power of sentence suspension under Article 213 during the period when the Supreme Court is seized of the case. The order of the Governor could only operate until the matter became subjudice in the Supreme Court and it becomes so on the filing of the petition for special leave to appeal?

1. (a)Satpal Dang v. State of Punjab
2. (b)D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar✓
3. (c)K.M. Nanavati v. State of Bombay
4. (d)A.K. Roy v. Union of India

7. In which case did Chief Justice Sikri observe:

"Nobody can be above the institution which he is supposed to serve. He is merely the creature of the institution, he can exist only if the institution exists. To protect the individual as mighter than the Constitution would be grave injustice."

1. (a)S.S. Dhanoa v. Union of India
2. (b)T.N. Seshan v. Union of India
3. (c)Presidential Reference (2000)
4. (d)A.C. Jose v. Sivan Pillai✓

11. Match List I with List II regarding Articles of the Constitution:

Choose the correct option:

1. (a)2 1 4 3
2. (b)2 4 1 3✓
3. (c)3 4 1 2
4. (d)4 3 2 1

1. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that the pardoning powers of the President under Article 72 and the Governors under Article 161 are subject to judicial review?

1. (a)Satya Narain Sharma v. State of Rajasthan
2. (b)Vineet Narain v. Union of India
3. (c)Epuru Sudhakar v. State of Andhra Pradesh✓
4. (d)Chhotey Lal v. State of U.P.

7. Article 72 of the Indian Constitution makes a provision for:

1. (a)Discharge of the President's functions in other contingencies
2. (b)Power of President to grant pardons, suspend, remit or commute sentences✓
3. (c)Extent of executive power of the Union
4. (d)Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President

1. What happens when the Vice President of India’s term expires?

1. (a)Vacates his office
2. (b)Gets a mandatory extension of 2 months
3. (c)Continues to hold office until successor enters upon office✓
4. (d)Elects his successor before relinquishing office

4. Which of the following statements are true under the Constitution of India?

(1) Article 61 deals with impeachment of the President.

(2) Article 142 provides that law declared by Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts.

(3) Article 122 provides that courts shall not inquire into proceedings of Parliament.

(4) Article 163 deals with extent of executive power of State.

Options:

1. (a)1, 2 and 3
2. (b)2 and 3
3. (c)1 and 3✓
4. (d)1, 3 and 4

1. Assertion (A): The President of India is a mere constitutional head.

Reason (R): In the parliamentary form of government, the Prime Minister is the head of government.

Choose the correct answer:

1. (a)Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A✓
2. (b)Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. (c)A is true but R is false
4. (d)A is false but R is true

7.

Statement I: It is the duty of the Prime Minister to communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation.

Statement II: It is also the duty of the Prime Minister to furnish such information relating to the administration and legislative proposals as the President may call for.

15. Choose the correct statements:

(A) Courts cannot review the question of "aid and advice" given by Council of Ministers to the President.

(B) The question of "aid and advice" by the Council of Ministers is a justiciable issue.

(C) Article 14 cannot be invoked against discrimination made by constitutional provisions.

(D) The question of "aid and advice" by the Council of Ministers is a non-justiciable issue.

(E) Article 14 can be invoked against discrimination made by constitutional provisions.

9. Under what circumstances can a Governor exercise discretion under Article 163?

(A) Appointment of Chief Minister

(B) Dismissal of ministry or dissolution of Assembly

(C) Submitting report to the President under Article 356

(D) Appointment of High Court Judges

Options:

1. (a)(A), (B), (C) only✓
2. (b)(B), (C), (D) only
3. (c)(D), (C), (A) only
4. (d)(D), (A), (B) only

Which of the following is not true in the context of powers of the President under the Indian Constitution?

1. (a)A. The President is the Supreme Commander of the Defence Forces of the country✓

B. All treaties and international agreements are negotiated and concluded in the name of the President though subject to ratification by the Parliament

C. President has power to summon and prorogue the Parliament and can dissolve the Lok Sabha

D. President is empowered to promulgate ordinances during recess of Parliament under Article 213 of the Indian Constitution

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)D Only✓
2. (b)B, C Only
3. (c)C Only
4. (d)A, B

Which Article of the Constitution of India provides that "Government of India can be sued in the name of Union of India and State Government may be sued in the name of State"?

1. (a)Art. 300 (1)✓
2. (b)Art. 270
3. (c)Art. 1
4. (d)Art. 110

7. The question of disqualification of the Speaker of Lok Sabha on the ground of defection is determined by:

1. (a)The Deputy Speaker
2. (b)The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
3. (c)A member elected by Lok Sabha✓
4. (d)The President of India

2. Which one of the following is the correct statement?

"Full faith and credit" clause of the Constitution does not apply to:

1. (a)Public records
2. (b)Judicial proceedings
3. (c)Acts of Corporations✓
4. (d)Public acts

5. Joint session of Parliament was summoned to pass which of the following?

1. (a)Dowry Prohibition Act
2. (b)Banking Service Commission Act
3. (c)POTA
4. (d)All the above✓

4. Money Bills can be introduced only:

1. (a)in Rajya Sabha
2. (b)in both Houses of Parliament
3. (c)in Lok Sabha only✓
4. (d)None of the above

4. After a Money Bill has been passed by the House of the People, within how many days is it transmitted to the Council of States for its recommendations?

1. (a)Thirty days
2. (b)Twenty-four days
3. (c)Sixty days
4. (d)Fourteen days✓

7. In the Constitution of India, the provision relating to the formation of new States can be amended by:

1. (a)A Parliamentary resolution ratified by majority of State Legislatures
2. (b)A simple majority in each House of Parliament✓
3. (c)3/4th majority in Parliament
4. (d)2/3rd majority in each House, and also the majority of total membership

15. Article 40 of the Constitution of India deals with:

1. (a)Just and humane working conditions
2. (b)Living wages for workers
3. (c)State's duty to raise nutrition level
4. (d)Organization of Village Panchayats✓

1. “It is likely that free India may be federal India... though there would be a great deal of Unitary Control.” — This statement was made by:

1. (a)Sir Alladi Krishna Swami Iyer
2. (b)Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
3. (c)Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru✓
4. (d)Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

2. Judicial Review in the Constitution of India is based on:

1. (a)Precedents and conventions
2. (b)Rule of law
3. (c)Due process of law
4. (d)Procedure established by law✓

6. The Supreme Court observed that "Parliamentary proceedings are not subject to Fundamental Rights" in the case:

1. (a)Keshav Singh v. Speaker, U.P. Assembly
2. (b)Gunapati v. Habibul Hasan
3. (c)M.S.M. Sharma v. Srikrishna Sinha✓
4. (d)State of Punjab v. Satpal Dang

7. For creating a new State in India, a constitutional amendment must be passed by:

1. (a)2/3rd majority of members present and voting in both Houses of Parliament
2. (b)2/3rd majority in Parliament and ratification by 2/3rd of States
3. (c)Simple majority in Parliament and ratification by half of the States
4. (d)Simple majority in Parliament✓

1. In E.P. Royappa case, which Supreme Court Judge propounded the concept that "Equality is a dynamic concept with many aspects and dimensions and it cannot be 'crippled, cabined and confined' within traditional and doctrinaire limits"?

1. (a)Justice Y.V. Chandrachud
2. (b)Justice P.N. Bhagwati✓
3. (c)Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer
4. (d)Justice O.P. Chinnappa Reddy

1. Which one of the following features does not support the federal character of Indian Constitution?

1. (a)Distribution of power between Centre and States
2. (b)Authority of Courts
3. (c)Supremacy of the Constitution
4. (d)Single citizenship✓

2. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. Law declared by Supreme Court to be binding on all courts → Article 141

B. Advisory jurisdiction of Supreme Court → Article 143

C. Power of Supreme Court to review its own judgment → Article 137

D. Appeal by Special Leave → Article 136

6. Which of the following Articles providing for fundamental rights cannot be suspended during the Proclamation of Emergency?

1. (a)Articles 14 and 15
2. (b)Articles 19 and 20
3. (c)Article 20 and 21✓
4. (d)Articles 21 and 22

1. Who among the following expressed the view that the Indian Constitution is federal as much as it establishes what may be called a dual polity?

1. (a)Dr. B.R. Ambedkar✓
2. (b)Sir Ivor Jennings
3. (c)Prof. K.C. Wheare
4. (d)Sir B.N. Rau

7. The statement “What cannot be done directly, cannot be done indirectly” refers to which constitutional doctrine?

Options:

1. (a)Colourable legislation✓
2. (b)Pith and substance
3. (c)Harmonious construction
4. (d)Doctrine of eclipse

Q1. The Constitution establishes a system of government which is almost quasi-federal — a unitary state with subsidiary federal features rather than a federal state with subsidiary unitary features. This opinion was expressed by:

1. (a)K.C. Wheare✓
2. (b)Jennings
3. (c)A.V. Dicey
4. (d)None of the above

Q5. If there is any inconsistency between the laws made by Parliament and laws made by the State Legislature, which one prevails?

1. (a)Parliamentary law, if passed before state law
2. (b)Parliamentary law, if passed after state law
3. (c)Parliamentary law, whether passed before or after✓
4. (d)State law, if passed after parliamentary law

4. Assertion (A): Code of conduct has statutory force.

Reason (R): Because Article 102 of the Constitution says so.

Codes:

1. (a)Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
2. (b)Both A and R are incorrect✓
3. (c)A is correct, but R is incorrect
4. (d)R is correct, but A is incorrect

5. Assertion (A): One of the two Acts enacted under List I Entry 66 and the other under List III Entry 25 can be repugnant to each other.

Reason (R): Because in Annamalai University v. Secretary of Inf. and Tourism Department decided so.

Codes:

1. (a)Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
2. (b)A is correct, but R is incorrect
3. (c)A is incorrect, but R is correct
4. (d)Both A and R are incorrect✓

2. Match the following Articles and cases:

A. Article 329 – 1. Keshavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

B. 10th Schedule – 2. Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu

C. Article 31-C – 3. Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain

D. Article 13(2) – 4. I.C. Golaknath v. State of Punjab

1. (a)2 1 3 4
2. (b)3 4 2 1✓
3. (c)4 3 1 2
4. (d)1 2 4 3

7. Assertion (A): Power and functions are distributed between the two tiers of governments under the written Constitution in India.

Reason (R): The Union and the States are completely independent of each other under the Indian Constitution.

1. (a)A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
2. (b)A is correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. (c)A is correct but R is wrong✓
4. (d)A is wrong but R is correct