Unit II · Topic 3Union and State legislature and distribution of legislative powers – Previous Year Questions

70 previous year questions on Union and State legislature and distribution of legislative powers from UGC NET Law papers (2009–2026), including 7 assertion–reason, 12 match-the-list, 8 statement-based questions. The correct option is marked in green.

Questions

70 questions

June 2009

7. The question of disqualification of the Speaker of Lok Sabha on the ground of defection is determined by:

  1. (a)The Deputy Speaker
  2. (b)The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
  3. (c)A member elected by Lok Sabha✓
  4. (d)The President of India
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c)

Explanation: As per Paragraph 6(2) of the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution (Anti-Defection Law), a member elected by the House is to decide disqualification of the Speaker on grounds of defection. This ensures neutrality in decision-making, since the Speaker cannot decide his/her own case.

December 2009Statements

2. Which one of the following is the correct statement?

"Full faith and credit" clause of the Constitution does not apply to:

  1. (a)Public records
  2. (b)Judicial proceedings
  3. (c)Acts of Corporations✓
  4. (d)Public acts
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) Acts of Corporations

Explanation:

Article 261 of the Constitution deals with “full faith and credit” to public acts, records, and judicial proceedings. It does not extend to corporate acts.

December 2009

5. Joint session of Parliament was summoned to pass which of the following?

  1. (a)Dowry Prohibition Act
  2. (b)Banking Service Commission Act
  3. (c)POTA
  4. (d)All the above✓
Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) All the above

Explanation:

Under Article 108 of the Constitution, the President can summon a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament when there is a deadlock over a bill. This provision has been used only three times:

To pass the Dowry Prohibition Act (1961)

Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill (1977)

Prevention of Terrorism Act (POTA, 2002)

Hence, the correct answer is (d).

June 2011

4. Money Bills can be introduced only:

  1. (a)in Rajya Sabha
  2. (b)in both Houses of Parliament
  3. (c)in Lok Sabha only✓
  4. (d)None of the above
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c)

Explanation: As per Article 110, Money Bills can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha, with prior recommendation of the President. Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations on them but cannot amend or reject them.

June 2012 · Paper 3

4. After a Money Bill has been passed by the House of the People, within how many days is it transmitted to the Council of States for its recommendations?

  1. (a)Thirty days
  2. (b)Twenty-four days
  3. (c)Sixty days
  4. (d)Fourteen days✓
Answer & explanation

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

As per Article 109(2) of the Constitution, a Money Bill must be transmitted to the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) within 14 days for recommendations. The Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject it, only suggest changes.

June 2012 · Paper 3

7. In the Constitution of India, the provision relating to the formation of new States can be amended by:

  1. (a)A Parliamentary resolution ratified by majority of State Legislatures
  2. (b)A simple majority in each House of Parliament✓
  3. (c)3/4th majority in Parliament
  4. (d)2/3rd majority in each House, and also the majority of total membership
Answer & explanation

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Under Article 3, Parliament can form new states by a simple majority through an ordinary law. No constitutional amendment or state ratification is required.

December 2012 – Paper 3

15. Article 40 of the Constitution of India deals with:

  1. (a)Just and humane working conditions
  2. (b)Living wages for workers
  3. (c)State's duty to raise nutrition level
  4. (d)Organization of Village Panchayats✓
Answer & explanation

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

Article 40 directs the State to organize Village Panchayats and endow them with powers to function as units of self-government.

June 2013Statements

1. “It is likely that free India may be federal India... though there would be a great deal of Unitary Control.” — This statement was made by:

  1. (a)Sir Alladi Krishna Swami Iyer
  2. (b)Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
  3. (c)Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru✓
  4. (d)Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

Jawaharlal Nehru expressed that India might adopt a federal structure, but would retain strong unitary features, which reflects the quasi-federal nature of the Indian Constitution.

June 2013

2. Judicial Review in the Constitution of India is based on:

  1. (a)Precedents and conventions
  2. (b)Rule of law
  3. (c)Due process of law
  4. (d)Procedure established by law✓
Answer & explanation

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

Judicial Review in India is rooted in “procedure established by law”, as mentioned in Article 21, unlike the US Constitution which follows “due process of law.” Article 13 also empowers courts to strike down unconstitutional laws.

June 2013

6. The Supreme Court observed that "Parliamentary proceedings are not subject to Fundamental Rights" in the case:

  1. (a)Keshav Singh v. Speaker, U.P. Assembly
  2. (b)Gunapati v. Habibul Hasan
  3. (c)M.S.M. Sharma v. Srikrishna Sinha✓
  4. (d)State of Punjab v. Satpal Dang
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

In M.S.M. Sharma v. Srikrishna Sinha (1958), the Supreme Court held that Parliamentary privileges under Article 122 are not subject to Fundamental Rights, particularly Article 19(1)(a).

June 2013

7. For creating a new State in India, a constitutional amendment must be passed by:

  1. (a)2/3rd majority of members present and voting in both Houses of Parliament
  2. (b)2/3rd majority in Parliament and ratification by 2/3rd of States
  3. (c)Simple majority in Parliament and ratification by half of the States
  4. (d)Simple majority in Parliament✓
Answer & explanation

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

Article 3 allows Parliament to create new states by a simple majority through ordinary legislation. It is not a constitutional amendment under Article 368

June 2013 · Paper 2

1. In E.P. Royappa case, which Supreme Court Judge propounded the concept that "Equality is a dynamic concept with many aspects and dimensions and it cannot be 'crippled, cabined and confined' within traditional and doctrinaire limits"?

  1. (a)Justice Y.V. Chandrachud
  2. (b)Justice P.N. Bhagwati✓
  3. (c)Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer
  4. (d)Justice O.P. Chinnappa Reddy
Answer & explanation

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

In E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu (AIR 1974 SC), Justice P.N. Bhagwati advanced the modern interpretation of equality under Article 14, stating that it is dynamic and evolving, going beyond rigid classifications.

December 2013 · Paper 3

1. Which one of the following features does not support the federal character of Indian Constitution?

  1. (a)Distribution of power between Centre and States
  2. (b)Authority of Courts
  3. (c)Supremacy of the Constitution
  4. (d)Single citizenship✓
Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) Single citizenship

Explanation: Federalism implies a dual system of government, which includes separate citizenship, authority, and laws for both Centre and States. However, India provides single citizenship, unlike the USA, where dual citizenship (state and federal) is a core federal trait.

December 2013 · Paper 3Match the lists

2. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. Law declared by Supreme Court to be binding on all courts → Article 141

B. Advisory jurisdiction of Supreme Court → Article 143

C. Power of Supreme Court to review its own judgment → Article 137

D. Appeal by Special Leave → Article 136

Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) 1 2 3 4

Explanation: These Articles define specific powers of the Supreme Court:

Article 141: Declared law is binding on all courts.

Article 143: President may seek SC's advisory opinion.

Article 137: SC may review its own judgment.

Article 136: SC may grant special leave to appeal.

December 2013 · Paper 3

6. Which of the following Articles providing for fundamental rights cannot be suspended during the Proclamation of Emergency?

  1. (a)Articles 14 and 15
  2. (b)Articles 19 and 20
  3. (c)Article 20 and 21✓
  4. (d)Articles 21 and 22
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) Article 20 and 21

Explanation: As per the 44th Amendment, Articles 20 (Protection in respect of conviction for offences) and 21 (Protection of life and personal liberty) cannot be suspended even during an emergency under Article 359.

December 2013 · Paper 3 (With Admin Law

1. Who among the following expressed the view that the Indian Constitution is federal as much as it establishes what may be called a dual polity?

  1. (a)Dr. B.R. Ambedkar✓
  2. (b)Sir Ivor Jennings
  3. (c)Prof. K.C. Wheare
  4. (d)Sir B.N. Rau
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar stated that the Indian Constitution is federal in structure as it creates a dual polity comprising the Union and the States. He emphasized that the Indian federation, while unique, retains essential characteristics of a federal system.

June 2014 · Paper 2Statements

7. The statement “What cannot be done directly, cannot be done indirectly” refers to which constitutional doctrine?

Options:

  1. (a)Colourable legislation✓
  2. (b)Pith and substance
  3. (c)Harmonious construction
  4. (d)Doctrine of eclipse
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) Colourable legislation

Explanation: The doctrine of colourable legislation states that what a legislature cannot do directly, it cannot do indirectly. It is invoked when a law appears to be within the competence of the legislature in form, but in substance, it transgresses constitutional limits. This principle ensures legislative accountability and prevents circumvention of constitutional provisions.

June 2014 · Paper 3

Q1. The Constitution establishes a system of government which is almost quasi-federal — a unitary state with subsidiary federal features rather than a federal state with subsidiary unitary features. This opinion was expressed by:

  1. (a)K.C. Wheare✓
  2. (b)Jennings
  3. (c)A.V. Dicey
  4. (d)None of the above
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a)

Explanation: K.C. Wheare described the Indian Constitution as quasi-federal, characterizing it as essentially unitary with some federal features. This is due to the significant powers retained by the central government and the limited autonomy of the states.

June 2014 · Paper 3

Q5. If there is any inconsistency between the laws made by Parliament and laws made by the State Legislature, which one prevails?

  1. (a)Parliamentary law, if passed before state law
  2. (b)Parliamentary law, if passed after state law
  3. (c)Parliamentary law, whether passed before or after✓
  4. (d)State law, if passed after parliamentary law
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c)

Explanation: As per Article 254 of the Constitution, in case of any conflict between parliamentary and state laws on a subject in the Concurrent List, the parliamentary law prevails, regardless of whether it was enacted before or after the state law.

December 2014 · Paper 3Assertion–Reason

4. Assertion (A): Code of conduct has statutory force.

Reason (R): Because Article 102 of the Constitution says so.

Codes:

  1. (a)Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. (b)Both A and R are incorrect✓
  3. (c)A is correct, but R is incorrect
  4. (d)R is correct, but A is incorrect
Answer & explanation

Answer: (b)

Explanation: A code of conduct may be adopted by legislative bodies or professional institutions, but unless specifically enacted into law, it does not have statutory force. Article 102 deals with disqualifications of MPs and does not relate to the code of conduct.

December 2014 · Paper 3Assertion–Reason

5. Assertion (A): One of the two Acts enacted under List I Entry 66 and the other under List III Entry 25 can be repugnant to each other.

Reason (R): Because in Annamalai University v. Secretary of Inf. and Tourism Department decided so.

Codes:

  1. (a)Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. (b)A is correct, but R is incorrect
  3. (c)A is incorrect, but R is correct
  4. (d)Both A and R are incorrect✓
Answer & explanation

Answer: (d)

Explanation: The claim that laws under Entry 66 of List I and Entry 25 of List III can be repugnant is not upheld by precedent. In fact, the Supreme Court in later cases like Preeti Srivastava v. State of M.P. clarified their harmonious interpretation.

June 2015Match the lists

2. Match the following Articles and cases:

A. Article 329 – 1. Keshavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

B. 10th Schedule – 2. Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu

C. Article 31-C – 3. Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain

D. Article 13(2) – 4. I.C. Golaknath v. State of Punjab

  1. (a)2 1 3 4
  2. (b)3 4 2 1✓
  3. (c)4 3 1 2
  4. (d)1 2 4 3
Answer & explanation

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

A. Article 329 relates to election disputes, addressed in Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975).

B. 10th Schedule (anti-defection) was interpreted in Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu (1993).

C. Article 31-C's validity was upheld in Kesavananda Bharati (1973).

D. Article 13(2) limiting laws violating fundamental rights was discussed in Golaknath (1967).

June 2015Assertion–Reason

7. Assertion (A): Power and functions are distributed between the two tiers of governments under the written Constitution in India.

Reason (R): The Union and the States are completely independent of each other under the Indian Constitution.

  1. (a)A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. (b)A is correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. (c)A is correct but R is wrong✓
  4. (d)A is wrong but R is correct
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Assertion is correct as Articles 245 and 246 provide for division of legislative powers under the Union, State, and Concurrent Lists. However, the Reason is incorrect — the Indian Constitution provides for a federal structure with unitary features; the Union has overriding authority in several areas.

June 2015 Paper 3Statements

8. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Union List has primacy under Article 246(1).

Residuary powers belong to States in India.

"Pith and substance" means true nature of legislation.

"Colourable legislation" means what can't be done directly can't be done indirectly.

  1. (a)Only 1 and 3 are correct✓
  2. (b)1, 2 and 3 are correct
  3. (c)2, 3 and 4 are correct
  4. (d)1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Residuary powers (Statement 2) belong to the Union under Article 248. Statement 4 defines colourable legislation correctly but was marked incorrect here for its ambiguous phrasing in the source.

December 2015 Paper 3Match the lists

2. Match the following provisions with Articles of the Constitution:

A. Power of Parliament to legislate in State List in national interest

B. Legislation for giving effect to international agreements

C. Power of Parliament to establish additional courts

D. Power of Parliament to legislate for two or more states with consent

Options:

  1. (a)4 1 2 3✓
  2. (b)1 2 3 4
  3. (c)4 3 1 2
  4. (d)1 2 4 3
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

A → Article 249

B → Article 253

C → Article 247

D → Article 252

This matches the constitutional articles with the correct legislative powers of Parliament.

December 2015 Paper 3

4. Who among the following shall be disqualified as a member of either House of Parliament?

A person who is not a citizen of India

A person who has acquired the citizenship of a foreign state

A person under any acknowledgement to a foreign state

A person under acknowledgement of adherence to a foreign state

Options:

  1. (a)Only 1
  2. (b)Only 1 and 2
  3. (c)1, 2 and 3
  4. (d)1, 2, 3 and 4✓
Answer & explanation

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

Under Article 102(1) of the Constitution, all four conditions lead to disqualification from Parliament. The Constitution bars anyone not maintaining Indian allegiance.

July 2016 Paper 2Match the lists

7. Match the following cases with their legal doctrines:

A. Hari Krishna Bhargav v. Union of India

B. Godfrey Philips India Ltd. v. State of U.P.

C. K.C. Gajapati Narayan Deo v. State of Orissa

D. In re: Delhi Laws Act

Conditional Legislation

Principles of interpretation to avoid overlapping

Power of Parliament to levy taxes on non-agricultural income

Colourable Legislation

Options:

  1. (a)3 2 4 1✓
  2. (b)2 3 1 4
  3. (c)3 4 2 1
  4. (d)2 3 4 1
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

Hari Krishna Bhargav case dealt with taxation powers under Entry 82.

Godfrey Philips case clarified interpretation principles to avoid overlapping in taxation.

K.C. Gajapati case addressed colourable legislation.

In re: Delhi Laws Act involved the doctrine of conditional legislation, assessing how much law-making can be delegated.

1. Which of the following statements are correct?

The Basic Structure of the Constitution of India cannot be amended.

Parliamentary Democracy is included in the Basic Structure of the Constitution of India.

July 2016 Paper 3

4. Which Parliamentary Committee in India acts as the "watchdog" on departmental expenditure and irregularities?

  1. (a)Committee on Public Undertakings
  2. (b)Committee on Public Assurances
  3. (c)Estimates Committee
  4. (d)Public Accounts Committee✓
Answer & explanation

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) scrutinizes the appropriation of funds by ministries and departments. It ensures accountability in public expenditure and audits irregularities based on CAG reports.

July 2016 Paper 3Assertion–Reason

5. Assertion (A): Both Houses of Parliament and State Legislatures enjoy similar privileges under the Constitution.

Reason (R): The position of the Speaker in India is generally similar to that of the Speaker in the UK House of Commons.

  1. (a)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. (b)Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A✓
  3. (c)A is true but R is false
  4. (d)A is false but R is true
Answer & explanation

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Articles 105 and 194 provide similar privileges to both Parliament and State Legislatures. Although the Speaker’s role in India resembles that in the UK in terms of parliamentary procedure, it is not the basis for the privileges mentioned.

September 2016 Paper 3

3. Which Article of the Constitution empowers Parliament and State Legislatures to create the ‘Contingency Fund of India’ and the ‘Contingency Fund of the State’?

  1. (a)Articles 265, 266, and 268
  2. (b)Articles 265, 267, and 268
  3. (c)Articles 266 and 267
  4. (d)Article 267 only✓
Answer & explanation

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Article 267 provides for the creation of the Contingency Fund of India and of the States. Article 265 relates to tax collection, Article 266 deals with Consolidated and Public Accounts, and Article 268 pertains to the distribution of revenue, not contingency funds.

September 2016 Paper 3

4. In the case of a bill other than a money bill, what can the State Legislative Council do?

  1. (a)It can veto the bill
  2. (b)It cannot veto the bill
  3. (c)It can request a joint session of the legislature
  4. (d)It can send the bill back for reconsideration✓
Answer & explanation

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Under Article 197, the Legislative Council in a State cannot permanently block a non-money bill. It can delay it by sending it back with suggestions. If the Legislative Assembly passes the bill again, it is deemed passed. Thus, the Council only has a recommendatory role.

September 2016 Paper 3

5. In case of inconsistency between the laws made by Parliament and State Legislature, which one prevails?

  1. (a)State Law
  2. (b)Parliament Law made before the State Law
  3. (c)Parliament Law made after the State Law
  4. (d)Parliament Law made either before or after the State Law✓
Answer & explanation

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Article 254 of the Constitution states that in case of conflict between a central and state law on a subject in the Concurrent List, the central law prevails whether made before or after. A state law can prevail only if it receives Presidential assent under Article 254(2).

January 2017 Paper 3Assertion–Reason

2. Assertion (A): A state law on a Concurrent List subject prevails despite repugnancy with a prior parliamentary law.

Reason (R): Parliament can always enact a law on Concurrent List which will prevail over any repugnant state law.

  1. (a)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. (b)Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. (c)A is false, but R is true✓
  4. (d)A is true, but R is false
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

According to Article 254 of the Constitution, if there is inconsistency between state and central law on Concurrent List, central law prevails, unless the state law has received Presidential assent. Therefore, A is incorrect and R is true.

November 2017 Paper 3Match the lists

6. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code below:

List-I (Articles)

A. Article 249

B. Article 250

C. Article 252

D. Article 253

List-II (Description)

Power of Parliament to legislate for two or more States by consent

Power of Parliament to legislate on State List during emergency

Legislation to give effect to international agreements

Power of Parliament to legislate in State List in national interest

Code:

  1. (a)A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
  2. (b)A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3✓
  3. (c)A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
  4. (d)A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
Answer & explanation

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Article 249 – Parliament can legislate in State List for national interest (A-4)

Article 250 – Parliament can legislate during emergency (B-2)

Article 252 – Legislation for two or more states by consent (C-1)

Article 253 – Legislation for international agreements (D-3)

November 2017 Paper 3Statements

7. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding a Constitutional Amendment Bill?

Prior permission of the President is required before introducing a Constitutional Amendment Bill in Parliament.

A Constitutional Amendment Bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament.

The President is bound to give assent to the Bill if it is passed by both Houses and ratified by at least half of the States (if required).

The President may return the Bill to the Houses for reconsideration.

  1. (a)Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
  2. (b)Only 2 and 3 are correct✓
  3. (c)Only 2, 3 and 4 are correct
  4. (d)1, 2, 3 and 4 all are correct
Answer & explanation

Answer: (b)

Explanation: According to Article 368:

No prior permission of the President is required before introducing the bill.

The bill can be introduced in either House.

The President is bound to give assent if the bill is duly passed and ratified (if required).

The President cannot return a Constitutional Amendment Bill for reconsideration.

July 2018Assertion–Reason

3. Assertion (A): A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of Parliament if he holds any office of profit under the Government.

Reason (R): If 'pecuniary gain' is receivable in connection with the office, then it shall not become an office of profit, irrespective of whether such gains are actually promised or not.

  1. (a)Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. (b)Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  3. (c)(A) is correct and (R) is incorrect✓
  4. (d)(A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Article 102 disqualifies a person from being a member of Parliament if they hold an office of profit under the government. The assertion is correct, but the reason is not because pecuniary gain does matter and determines the office's nature.

July 2018Statements

8. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

A. An ordinary Bill can only originate in the Council of States

B. A Bill pending in the House of the People shall not lapse by prorogation of the House

C. A Bill pending in the Council of States which has been passed by the House of the People shall not lapse on dissolution of the House

D. A Bill pending in the House of the People shall not lapse by reason of the dissolution of the House

  1. (a)A and B are correct
  2. (b)B and C are correct✓
  3. (c)A and D are correct
  4. (d)B and D are correct
Answer & explanation

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Article 107 clarifies that prorogation does not cause lapse, and bills passed by Lok Sabha and pending in Rajya Sabha also do not lapse.

July 2018

9. In which of the following cases does the Parliament have no power to legislate on the State List?

  1. (a)Consent of two states
  2. (b)Implementing international agreements
  3. (c)Emergency is in operation
  4. (d)In the public interest if so declared by Council of States✓
Answer & explanation

Answer: (d)

Explanation: In case of a public interest declaration, Parliament can legislate on State List as per Article 249. So the question is incorrectly framed; actually, it always has power under some condition.

July 2018

11. Which of the following cases is not related to parliamentary privileges?

  1. (a)M.S.M. Sharma v. Sri Krishna Sinha
  2. (b)State of Karnataka v. Union of India
  3. (c)Jatish Chandra Ghose v. Harisadhan Mukherjee
  4. (d)State of Tamil Nadu v. K. Shyam Sundar✓
Answer & explanation

Answer: (d)

Explanation: The 2011 case involving Tamil Nadu was about state legislation, not parliamentary privilege.

December 2018

5. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that any MP or MLA convicted with a minimum of two years imprisonment loses membership with immediate effect?

  1. (a)M.S.M. Sharma v. Sri Krishna Sinha
  2. (b)Ramakrishna Hegde v. State of Karnataka
  3. (c)Hardwari Lal v. Ch. Bhajan Lal
  4. (d)Lily Thomas v. Union of India✓
Answer & explanation

Answer: (d)

Explanation: In Lily Thomas v. Union of India (2013), the Court ruled that MPs and MLAs convicted with two or more years of imprisonment lose their membership immediately, overruling Section 8(4) of the Representation of People Act.

June 2019Statements

3. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

If the other House does not pass an Ordinary Bill and more than six months have passed,, the President may summon a joint session.

At a Joint Session, new amendment can be proposed in the Bill with the permission of the Presiding Officer (Speaker of the Lok Sabha).

The Lower House has exclusive power over Money Bills.

Money and Financial Bills can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha with prior Presidential recommendation.

  1. (a)Only 1
  2. (b)1, 2 and 3
  3. (c)1, 3 and 4
  4. (d)1, 2, 3 and 4✓
Answer & explanation

Answer: (d)

Explanation: All four statements are true. Article 108 provides for a joint session. Amendments during joint sessions require the Speaker’s approval. Article 110 assigns exclusive power over Money Bills to Lok Sabha, and Articles 110 & 117 mandate their introduction with prior Presidential recommendation.

June 2020

2. The provision relating to 'solid waste management' is found under which Schedule of the Constitution of India?

  1. (a)Schedule VII
  2. (b)Schedule IX
  3. (c)Schedule XI
  4. (d)Schedule XII✓
Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) Schedule XII

Explanation: Schedule XII of the Constitution, inserted by the 74th Amendment Act (1992), lists the functions of municipalities, including solid waste management.

June 2020Assertion–Reason

8. Assertion (A): The Parliament has the power to make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India and such laws can have extra-territorial operation.

Reason (R): Article 245(1) empowers Parliament to make laws for the whole or any part of India and 245(2) states that such laws cannot be held invalid for having extra-territorial operation.

  1. (a)Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A✓
  2. (b)Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. (c)A is true, but R is false
  4. (d)A is false, but R is true
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation: Article 245(1) and 245(2) together allow Parliament to make laws with extra-territorial effect, and these laws cannot be invalidated on that ground.

June 2020

9. The provision relating to 'drinking water' is contained in which Schedule of the Constitution?

  1. (a)Schedule VII
  2. (b)Schedule IX
  3. (c)Schedule XI✓
  4. (d)Schedule XII
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) Schedule XI

Explanation: Entry 11 of Schedule XI (inserted by the 73rd Amendment Act) relates to the responsibility of Panchayats in providing drinking water.

December 2020/June 2021

6. Under the special powers of Rajya Sabha, which resolutions can originate only in Rajya Sabha?

(1) Resolution seeking removal of Vice President

(2) Resolution for creation of All India Services

(3) Resolution for legislation on State subject

(4) Introduction of Money Bills

Options:

  1. (a)1 and 2
  2. (b)1 and 3
  3. (c)4 and 2
  4. (d)1, 2 and 3✓
Answer & explanation

Answer: (d)

Resolutions for removal of Vice President (Article 67(b)), creation of All India Services (Article 312), and legislation on State List subjects (Article 249) can originate in the Rajya Sabha. Money Bills (Article 110/109) can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha, not Rajya Sabha. Hence, option (4) is incorrect.

December 2021/June 2022

12. Which of the following Articles relate to trade, commerce and intercourse?

(A) Freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse is covered under Article 301

(B) Restrictions on legislative powers of Union and States with regard to trade and commerce are in Article 302

(C) Parliament’s power to impose restrictions on trade is under Article 302

(D) Restrictions among states are under Article 304

(E) Appointment of authority for Articles 301–304 is in Article 306

Answer & explanation

Answer: (c)

Articles 301 to 304 deal with trade and commerce:

Article 301 ensures freedom of trade across India.

Article 302 empowers Parliament to impose restrictions.

Article 304 applies to state-imposed restrictions.

However, Article 306 was repealed; appointment of authority is under Article 307, not 306. Hence, (E) is incorrect.

December 2022Match the lists

7. Match the following Parts of the Constitution with their respective subjects:

List-I:

A. Part IX B

B. Part XIV A

C. Part VIII

D. Part XVII

List-II:

I. Tribunals

II. Co-operative Societies

III. Official Languages

IV. Union Territories

Answer & explanation

Answer: (c)

A – II: Part IX B relates to Co-operative Societies, inserted by the 97th Constitutional Amendment.

B – I: Part XIV A deals with Tribunals (Administrative and other).

C – IV: Part VIII deals with Union Territories.

D – III: Part XVII deals with Official Languages.

June 2023

2. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution relate to the State Legislature?

A. Article 176 – Special address by the Governor

B. Article 189 – Oath or affirmation by members

C. Article 198 – Special procedure in respect of Money Bills

D. Article 196 – Introduction and passing of Bills

E. Article 190 – Disqualification of members

  1. (a)A, B and C only
  2. (b)B, C and D only
  3. (c)A, D and E only
  4. (d)A, C and D only✓
Answer & explanation

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Articles 176, 196, and 198 directly relate to Governor’s address, legislative procedure, and Money Bills. Article 189 relates to voting and quorum, and Article 190 to resignation and disqualification—not oath taking.

June 2023Match the lists

3. Match the following landmark cases with the doctrines they represent:

A. State of Rajasthan v. G. Chawla – I. Pith and substance

B. K.T. Moopil Nair v. State of Kerala – II. Colourable legislation

C. O.N. Mahindroo v. Bar Council of Maharashtra & Goa – III. Harmonious construction

D. M. Karunanidhi v. Union of India – IV. Repugnancy

  1. (a)A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  2. (b)A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  3. (c)A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  4. (d)A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV✓
Answer & explanation

Answer: (d)

Explanation: These cases are known for their respective doctrines as follows—Pith and substance (A), Colourable legislation (B), Harmonious construction (C), and Repugnancy (D).

June 2023

8. Under which Article was the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 enacted?

  1. (a)Article 249
  2. (b)Article 250
  3. (c)Article 252
  4. (d)Article 253✓
Answer & explanation

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Article 253 enables Parliament to legislate for implementing international agreements. The Environment Protection Act was enacted under this power after the Stockholm Conference of 1972.

June 2023

13. According to Article 80 of the Constitution of India, the representatives of each state in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) are elected by:

  1. (a)Elected members of the State Legislative Assembly by majority vote through secret ballot
  2. (b)All the members of the State Legislative Assembly by majority vote through secret ballot
  3. (c)Elected members of the State Legislative Assembly in accordance with system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote✓
  4. (d)All the members of the State Legislative Assembly in accordance with system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

As per Article 80(4) of the Constitution, representatives of the States to the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies through proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote system.

June 2023Match the lists

15. Which of the following subjects are covered under List I (Union List) of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India?

  1. (a)Foreign Loans
  2. (b)Public Health✓
  3. (c)Atomic Energy
  4. (d)Public Order

(e) Insurance

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) A, C and E only

Explanation: Foreign loans, atomic energy, and insurance are all subjects under the Union List (List I). Public health and public order are matters listed under the State List (List II), hence not part of the Union List.

Read the passage carefully and answer the following question:

"Where is legal wrong or legal injury is caused to a person or to a determinate class of person by reason of violation of any Constitutional or Legal right and such person or determinate class of persons is by reason of poverty, helplessness or disability or socially or economically disadvantaged position unable to approach the court for relief, any member of the public can maintain an application for an appropriate direction or order or writ in the High Court under Article 226 or in case of breach of any Fundamental Right to this court under Article 32. Where the weaker section of the community are concerned such as undertrial prisoners languishing in jails without a trial, inmates of the protective Home in Agra, or Harijan workers engaged in road construction in the District of Ajmer, who are living in poverty and desolation, who are barely eking out a miserable existence with their sweat and toil, who are helpless victims of an exploitative society and who do not have easy access to justice, the Supreme Court will not insist on a regular writ petition to be filed by the public spirited individual espousing their cause and seeking relief for them. The Supreme court will readily respond to the letter addressed by such individual acting pro bono piblico. It is true that there are rules made by the Supreme Court prescribing the procedure for moving it for relief under Article 32 and they require various formalities to be gone through by a person seeking to approach it. But it must not be forgotten that procedure is but a handmaid of justice and the cause of justice may never be allowed to be wasted by any procedural technicalities. The Court will therefore unhesitatingly cast aside the technical rules of procedure in the exercise of its dispensing power and treat the letter of the public minded individual as a writ-petition and act upon it."

16. Under which Article of the Constitution of India can one file an application directly to the Supreme Court for an appropriate remedy in PIL cases?

(a) Article 226

(b) Article 21

(c) Article 19

(d) Article 32

Answer: (d) Article 32

Explanation: Article 32 of the Indian Constitution provides the right to move the Supreme Court by appropriate proceedings for the enforcement of fundamental rights. It serves as a constitutional remedy and is frequently used in PIL (Public Interest Litigation) matters.

December 2023Match the lists

8. Match List I with List II (Schedules and Descriptions).

List I:

(A) Fifth Schedule

(B) Eighth Schedule

(C) Tenth Schedule

(D) Fourth Schedule

List II:

(1) Languages

(2) Disqualification on ground of defection

(3) Scheduled areas and Scheduled Tribes administration

(4) Allocation of seats in Council of States

Options:

  1. (a)(A)-(1), (B)-(2), (C)-(4), (D)-(3)
  2. (b)(A)-(3), (B)-(1), (C)-(2), (D)-(4)✓
  3. (c)(A)-(2), (B)-(4), (C)-(3), (D)-(1)
  4. (d)(A)-(4), (B)-(3), (C)-(1), (D)-(2)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (b)

Explanation: The Fifth Schedule deals with tribal areas administration, Eighth with official languages, Tenth with anti-defection, and Fourth with allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha. Thus, (b) is correct.

June 2024Match the lists

3. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (List in Constitution)

(A) Concurrent List

(B) State List

(C) Union List

(D) Appellate Jurisdiction of Supreme Court

List-II (Subject)

(I) In civil matters

(II) Marriage and Divorce

(III) Public health and sanitation

(IV) Elections to the legislatures of State

Options:

  1. (a)A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
  2. (b)A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  3. (c)A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I✓
  4. (d)A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

Concurrent List includes Marriage and Divorce

State List includes Public Health and Sanitation

Union List includes Elections to the State Legislatures

Appellate Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court applies in civil matters

Hence, option (c) is correct.

June 2024

7. In which of the important circumstances can Parliament legislate with respect to matters in the State List?

(A) To make laws with respect to Goods and Services Tax imposed by such state

(B) In matters of National Interest

(C) If a proclamation of Emergency is in operation

(D) By consent of states

(E) For giving effect to International Agreements

Options:

  1. (a)A, B, C only
  2. (b)B, C, D only
  3. (c)A, C, D, E only
  4. (d)B, C, D, E only✓
Answer & explanation

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Under Articles 249, 250, 252, and 253 of the Constitution, Parliament may legislate on subjects in the State List: (B) in national interest (Rajya Sabha resolution under Art. 249), (C) during emergency (Art. 250), (D) by state consent (Art. 252), and (E) for international agreements (Art. 253). GST is governed separately under Article 246A and does not fall under these exceptions.

December 2019 · Q85

In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court of India has specifically said that 'federal structure' is the basic feature of the Constitution?

  1. (a)A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
  2. (b)S.R. Bommai v. Union of India✓
  3. (c)Govind v.State of Madhya Pradesh
  4. (d)Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) S.R. Bommai v. Union of India

June 2020 · Q85

The provision regarding 'legislation for giving effect to international agreements' is given in the Indian Constitution under

  1. (a)Article 253✓
  2. (b)Article 255
  3. (c)Article 251
  4. (d)Article 254
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) Article 253

Dec 2021/June 2022 · Q25

Every decision of the Goods and Services Tax Council shall require it to be taken at a meeting

  1. (a)By a majority of not less than two thirds of the weighted votes of the members present
  2. (b)By a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present✓
  3. (c)By a majority of not less than two-thirds of the weighted votes of all the members of the council
  4. (d)By a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of all the members of the Council
Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) By a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present

Dec 2021/June 2022 · Q82Match the lists

Match List-I with List-II

I -II

List-I/I List-II

A. Doctrine of Pith and Substance/I. What cannot be done directly, cannot be done indirectly

B. Doctrine of Incidental Encroachment II. The part of statute which is bad can be severed from the rest

C. Doctrine of Severability : III. A law is not invalid even through trenched incidentally to another list

D. Doctrine of Colourable legislation IV. True nature and character of the legislation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. (a)A - I, B – II, C - III, D - IV
  2. (b)A - IV, B - III, C- I, D - II
  3. (c)A - III, B - II, C- IV, D - I
  4. (d)A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I✓
Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

December 2022 · Q65

In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court has held that while applying and interpreting the anti defection law, the Speaker of Lok-Sabha functions as a tribunal

A. S.P. Sampath Kumar V/s Union of India (1987)

(1987)

B. I.R. Coelho V/s State of Tamilnadu (2007)

C. Kihota Hollohon V/s Zachilhu (1992)

D. L. Chandra Kumar V/s Union of India (1997)

E. M.S.M. Sharma V/s Shri Krishna Sharma (1959)

(1959)

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

  1. (a)B, C and E only
  2. (b)A, B and C only
  3. (c)C only✓
  4. (d)D only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) C only

June 2025 · Q56

The foundation of federation in India was laid down by which of the following legislations?

  1. (a)Government of India Act, 1919
  2. (b)Government of India Act, 1935✓
  3. (c)Constitution of India, 1950
  4. (d)Queen’s Proclamation of 1875
Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) Government of India Act, 1935

Explanation: The 1935 Act introduced federal features in India’s governance, creating provincial autonomy and division of powers.

31 Dec 2025 (Shift 1) · Q102

Which of the Article of the Constitution of India mentions Union List, Concurrent List and State List?

  1. (a)Article 245
  2. (b)Article 246✓
  3. (c)Article 246A
  4. (d)Article 249
Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) Article 246

31 Dec 2025 (Shift 1) · Q137Match the lists

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II LIST-I (Doctrine) LIST-II (Case Law)

A. Doctrine of Pith and Substance I. K C G Narayan Dev. V/s State of Orissa

B. Doctrine of Territorial Nexus II. M. Karunanidhi V/s Union of India

C. Doctrine of Repugnancy III. P. K. Mukherjee V/s Bank of Khulna

D. Doctrine of Colourable Legislation IV. Wallace V/s Income Tax Commissioner

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. (a)A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  2. (b)A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  3. (c)A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I✓
  4. (d)A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

June 2026 · Q75Statements

Which of the following statement is correct regarding the impact of dissolution of House of People on Business pending in house?

A. A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses as per Article 107(5)

B. A contempt proceedings pending in House lapses

C. A Bill passed in the Lok Sabha but pending in Rajya Sabha does not lapse as per Article 107(5)

D. A Bill pending in Rajya Sabha which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha does not lapse

E. A Bill passed by both houses but pending assent by the president does not lapse

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. (a)A, B and D only
  2. (b)B, C and D only
  3. (c)A, D and E only✓
  4. (d)A, B and E only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) A, D and E only

Explanation: Under Article 107 of the Constitution of India and established parliamentary procedures, the position regarding the impact of the dissolution of the Lok Sabha (House of the People) on pending business is as follows:

• A. A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses as per Article 107(5) - CORRECT: Under Article 107(5), any Bill pending in the Lok Sabha (whether originating in the Lok Sabha or transmitted to it by the Rajya Sabha) lapses upon the dissolution of the House.

• B. A contempt proceeding pending in the House lapses - INCORRECT: As per established parliamentary privilege rules and precedents, motions, notices, or proceedings relating to contempt of the House or breach of privilege do NOT lapse automatically upon dissolution; they are carried forward to be considered or revived in the subsequent Lok Sabha.

• C. A Bill passed in the Lok Sabha but pending in Rajya Sabha does not lapse as per Article 107(5) INCORRECT: Article 107(5) expressly provides that a Bill which has been passed by the Lok Sabha and is pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

• D. A Bill pending in Rajya Sabha which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha does not lapse - CORRECT:

Under Article 107(4), a Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha that has not been passed by the Lok Sabha does not lapse on dissolution. (Since the Rajya Sabha is a permanent body not subject to dissolution).

• E. A Bill passed by both houses but pending assent by the President does not lapse - CORRECT: A Bill passed by both Houses and submitted to the President for assent under Article 111 does not lapse upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. Therefore, the correct combination of statements is A, D and E only, corresponding to Option (c).

June 2026 · Q123

In times of Emergency, Parliament may vote a lump sum without allocating it to any particular object, when demand cannot be stated with usual details under Article 116(1)(b) of the Constitution is called which of the following?

  1. (a)Exceptional Grant
  2. (b)Votes of Credit✓
  3. (c)Vote on Account
  4. (d)Supplementary Grants
Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) Votes of Credit

Explanation: Under Article 116(1)(b) of the Constitution of India, a Vote of Credit is granted to meet an unexpected demand upon the resources of India when, on account of the magnitude or the indefinite character of the service, the demand cannot be stated with the details ordinarily given in an Annual Financial Statement. Key features include:

• Blank Cheque to Executive: It functions as an open financial authorization given by the Parliament to the Executive to handle sudden national emergencies, full-scale wars, or major unexpected crises where detailed expenditure cannot be itemized in advance.

• No Specific Object Allocation: Unlike regular budget grants, Parliament votes a lump sum amount without specifying the exact itemized allocations due to the urgent and uncertain nature of the situation.

Passage for June 2026 Q141–Q145

Comprehension (for Q141–145)

An academic question raised time and again is whether the Indian Constitution can be characterized as Federal. According to Wheare, the Constitution of India is 'quasi-federal' and not strictly federal. Jennings has characterized it as a "federation with strong centralizing tendency." Austin described it as "Co-operative federation." In West Bengal v. UOI, the Supreme Court projected the traditional view of federalism and characterized the Indian Constitution as not being true to any traditional pattern of federalism. On the other hand, Subba Rao, J. in his bid to bolster the position of the States against the centre, took to the extreme view of competitive and dual federalism which has been long discarded in older federation. In State of Rajasthan v. UOI, Beg, CJ, said, the extent of federalism in it is largely watered down by the needs of progress and development of a country which has to nationally integrated, politically and economically coordinated and socially, intellectually and spiritually uplifted. In S.R. Bommai v. UOI, Ahmadi J. described the Indian Constitution following K.C. Wheare as "quasi federal" because it is mixture of the federal and unitary elements, learning more towards the latter. Sawant J. observed "Democracy and federalism are essential features of our Constitution and are part of basic structure". Justice Reddy, has observed, the fact that under the scheme of our Constitution greater power is conferred upon the centre vis-à-vis the States do not mean that States are mere appendages of the Centre. Within the sphere allotted to them, the State are supreme and the center cannot tamper with their power. More particularly the Court should not adopt an approach, an interpretation, which has the effect of or tends to have effect of whittling down the power reserved to the States. Federalism in India is not a matter of administrative convince but are of the principle. Accordingly, in Bommai case, the Supreme Court has developed a more balance approach to Article 356 of the Constitution

June 2026 · Q141

Which of the following jurist has characterized the Indian Constitution as Federation with strong centralizing tendency?

  1. (a)K.C. Wheare
  2. (b)Nicholas
  3. (c)Jennings✓
  4. (d)Austin
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) Jennings

Explanation: Sir Ivor Jennings described the Indian Constitution as a "federation with a strong centralizing tendency."

• As explicitly mentioned in the passage, different jurists have given different characterizations:

o K.C. Wheare (a): "Quasi-federal" o Sir Ivor Jennings (c): "Federation with strong centralizing tendency" o Granville Austin (d): "Co-operative federalism"

June 2026 · Q142

The provisions of failure of Constitutional machinery of the States is provided the which of the following provision of the Constitution?

  1. (a)Article 355
  2. (b)Article 352
  3. (c)Article 356✓
  4. (d)Article 360
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) Article 356

Explanation: Article 356 of the Constitution of India contains provisions for imposition of President's Rule in case of the failure of constitutional machinery in States.

• Article 352 (b): Proclamation of National Emergency (War, External Aggression, Armed Rebellion).

• Article 355 (a): Duty of the Union to protect States against external aggression and internal disturbance.

• Article 360 (d): Financial Emergency.

June 2026 · Q143

Which one of the following is not feature of Federal Constitution?

  1. (a)Separation of Power✓
  2. (b)Division of Power
  3. (c)Written and Rigid Constitution
  4. (d)Supremacy of the Court
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) Separation of Power

Explanation: • Division of Powers (b), Written & Rigid Constitution (c), and Supremacy of the Judiciary/Courts (d) are core structural features of Federalism (distribution of sovereign powers between Center and States).

• Separation of Powers (a), on the other hand, refers to the division of governmental functions among the Legislature, Executive, and Judiciary. It is a feature of constitutionalism and democratic governance, but is not an exclusive defining feature of federalism (e.g., unitary systems like the UK also maintain judicial independence and separation of powers).

June 2026 · Q144

The subject matter with respect to which the Union Parliament and State Legislative shall have power to make law is provided the which of the following schedule of the Constitution?

  1. (a)Fifth Schedule
  2. (b)Sixth Schedule
  3. (c)Seventh Schedule✓
  4. (d)Twelve Schedule
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) Seventh Schedule

Explanation: The Seventh Schedule (read with Article 246) of the Constitution of India allocates legislative powers between the Union Parliament and State Legislatures through three lists:

1. List I: Union List

2. List II: State List

3. List III: Concurrent List

• Fifth & Sixth Schedules (a, b): Administration of Scheduled Areas and Tribal Areas.

• Twelfth Schedule (d): Powers, authority, and responsibilities of Municipalities.

June 2026 · Q145

The proper course for testing the strength of the ministry was holding the test on the floor of the house, except in cases where the holding of the floor test was considered not possible for reasons given in writing, was laid down by the Supreme Court in which of the following case?

  1. (a)State of Rajasthan v. UOI
  2. (b)S.R. Bommai v. UOI✓
  3. (c)Rameshwar Prasad v. UOI
  4. (d)State of West Bengal v. UOI
Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) S.R. Bommai v. UOI

Explanation: In the landmark case S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994), a nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court held that the floor of the Assembly is the only legal forum to test the majority of a Council of Ministers/Government, and calling for a floor test is mandatory except in extraordinary circumstances recorded in writing.

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