60 previous year questions on Judiciary from UGC NET Law papers (2009–2026), including 5 assertion–reason, 10 match-the-list, 5 statement-based questions. The correct option is marked in green.
60 questions
1. In the appointment of the Supreme Court Judge, primary importance is given to the opinion of:
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Control mechanisms like writs, judicial review, and tribunal supervision exist to ensure administrative authorities act within the bounds of law and do not overstep or abuse their power.
1. Consider the following Judgements of the Supreme Court which dealt with the appointment and transfer of Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts:
S.P. Gupta v. Union of India
Sakal Chand v. Union of India
President's Special Reference No.1
Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association v. Union of India
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order in which the above judgements were delivered?
Answer: (c) 2, 1, 4, 3
Explanation:
Sakal Chand – 1962
S.P. Gupta – 1981
Advocates-on-Record Association – 1993
President's Reference – 1998
4. A Judge of the Supreme Court or High Court may be removed from service by:
Answer: (c)
Explanation: As per Articles 124(4) and 218 of the Constitution, a judge can be removed only through an impeachment process in Parliament, on grounds of proved misbehavior or incapacity.
6. Judicial Review in the Indian Constitution is based on:
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The concept of Judicial Review in India is rooted in "procedure established by law", as per Article 21. The Indian judiciary ensures that laws passed by the legislature do not violate the Constitution. Unlike the U.S., India did not originally adopt the "due process" doctrine, although post-Maneka Gandhi, the interpretation became broader.
6. The Supreme Court does not have original jurisdiction regarding a dispute between:
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Article 131 gives the Supreme Court original jurisdiction in disputes between States or the Centre and States. However, it does not apply to disputes between a citizen and a State, which fall under regular writ or civil jurisdictions.
3. The Constitution of India embodies the parliamentary form of government because:
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Article 75(3) provides that the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, a hallmark of the parliamentary system.
7. A resolution for revoking the proclamation of National Emergency may be initiated by:
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Under Article 352, a resolution to revoke National Emergency can be introduced if at least one-tenth of Lok Sabha members submit a notice.
7. Parliament can legislate on matters in the State List if it is in the:
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Under Article 249, Parliament can make laws on State List subjects if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution supported by two-thirds majority stating it is necessary in the national interest.
3. Which of the following cases held that free and fair election is recognized as a basic structure of the Indian Constitution?
Answer: (a) Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narayan
Explanation: In this landmark judgment, free and fair elections were recognized as part of the basic structure doctrine, which cannot be amended even by constitutional amendment.
6. The jurisdiction of Supreme Court of India may be enlarged by —
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Article 138 empowers Parliament to expand the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court by enacting a law. It ensures that the Court's authority evolves with changing societal needs.
3. The Supreme Court of India held in which of the following cases that the views expressed by it in exercise of its advisory jurisdiction are binding on all courts within the territory of India?
Answer: (d)
Explanation: In the case of In Re: Special Courts Bill (1978), the Supreme Court clarified that opinions expressed under its advisory jurisdiction (Article 143) are binding on all courts within India. This elevated the importance of the Court's advisory function.
7. The jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India may be enlarged by —
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Article 138 of the Constitution authorizes Parliament to expand the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court by law. This allows flexibility in granting the Court additional powers as and when necessary.
6. A distinguished jurist can be appointed as a judge of which court under the Constitution?
Options:
Answer: (b) Supreme Court only
Explanation: Under Article 124(3)(c) of the Indian Constitution, a person who is a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the President may be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court. This provision does not apply to High Courts.
Q2. Match the following:
A. Appointment of Judges
B. Court of Record
C. Appeal in Civil Cases
D. Certificate for Appeal to Supreme Court
Article 124
Article 129
Article 133
Article 134A
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The correct matches are:
Appointment of Judges – Article 124
Court of Record – Article 129
Appeal in Civil Cases – Article 133
Certificate for Appeal to Supreme Court – Article 134A.
3. In Vishram Singh Raghubanshi v. State of Uttar Pradesh (AIR 2011 SC 2275), what did the Supreme Court hold?
Answer: (a)
Explanation: In this case, the Court emphasized the importance of protecting the reputation of subordinate judicial officers, stating that it is the responsibility of higher judiciary to ensure their integrity is not maligned without proof.
7. Match the jurisdictional powers of the Supreme Court with the related Articles:
A. Original jurisdiction – 1. Article 143
B. Advisory jurisdiction – 2. Article 136
C. Appeal by special leave – 3. Article 132
D. Appellate jurisdiction – 4. Article 131
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
A → 4: Original jurisdiction under Article 131 (Centre-State disputes).
B → 1: Advisory jurisdiction under Article 143.
C → 2: Special leave to appeal under Article 136.
D → 3: Appellate jurisdiction in constitutional matters under Article 132.
7. Read the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the codes below:
Assertion (A): The administrative control over the subordinate judiciary in the State lies with the Governor.
Reason (R): The High Court has power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals within its jurisdiction except military tribunals.
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Article 227 of the Constitution gives the High Court supervisory powers over subordinate courts, not the Governor. Thus, the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
3. Assertion (A): The rule-making power of the Supreme Court of India is not subject to any law made by the Parliament.
Reason (R): Only an impartial and independent judiciary can protect the rights of individuals without fear or favour.
Options:
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
While it is true that an independent judiciary protects rights, the rule-making power of the Supreme Court (Article 145) is subject to parliamentary law. Hence, A is false but R is true.
6. Who can establish additional courts for better administration of existing laws on a Union List matter?
Options:
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
As per Article 247, Parliament has the power to establish additional courts for the better administration of laws related to matters in the Union List.
4. Assertion (A): No minimum age is prescribed for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court of India nor any fixed term of office.
Reason (R): The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is dealt with in Article 132 of the Constitution.
Options:
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Article 124(2) lays down qualifications for Supreme Court judges, but does not mention a minimum age. However, Article 132 relates to appellate jurisdiction, not original jurisdiction. Original jurisdiction is covered under Article 131. Hence, only the assertion is correct.
2. Which of the following statements about the Indian Judiciary are correct?
The Supreme Court of India stands at the head of the entire judicial system.
The High Courts of various states function under the Supreme Court.
District and Sessions Courts function under the concerned High Court.
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
All the statements are correct. Article 124 establishes the Supreme Court at the apex. High Courts, under Article 214, are established in each state. Subordinate courts such as District and Sessions Courts function under the administrative supervision of the respective High Courts.
7. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that the court cannot expand the scope or intent of legislation when the language of the provision is clear?
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
In Union of India v. Deoki Nandan Aggarwal (1991), the Supreme Court emphasized that when the language of the statute is clear and unambiguous, the court should not read into it anything beyond its text, nor can it expand the intention of the legislation.
7. Match the following decisions with their legal principles:
A. Rajesh Gupta v. State of U.P.
B. Attorney General v. Lachma Devi
C. Avinash Mehrotra v. Union of India
D. Vishal Jeet v. Union of India
Execution of death sentence by public hanging
Reservation to women
Traffic in human beings includes devadasis
Right to safe education
Options:
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Rajesh Gupta: Right to safe education upheld.
Attorney General v. Lachma Devi: Public hanging case—held unconstitutional.
Avinash Mehrotra: Enforced the right to safe schooling.
Vishal Jeet: Addressed trafficking and devadasis, calling for strict regulation.
3. Assertion (A): The President of India has the right to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on any matter of law or fact of public importance.
Reason (R): The President is bound to accept the advice rendered by the Supreme Court.
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Under Article 143, the President may seek the Supreme Court’s advisory opinion, but the advice is not binding. Hence, A is true, R is false.
4. Match List-I with List-II regarding constitutional articles:
List-I:
A. Article 136
B. Article 134
C. Article 131
D. Article 130
List-II:
i. Appellate jurisdiction in criminal matters
ii. Seat of the Supreme Court
iii. Special leave to appeal jurisdiction
iv. Original jurisdiction of Supreme Court
Codes:
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Article 136: Special leave to appeal jurisdiction
Article 134: Appellate jurisdiction in criminal matters
Article 131: Original jurisdiction between states and union
Article 130: Seat of the Supreme Court
5. Match List-I with List-II regarding High Court provisions:
List-I:
A. Article 221
B. Article 222
C. Article 223
D. Article 224
List-II:
i. Transfer of a judge
ii. Appointment of acting Chief Justice
iii. Appointment of additional and acting judges
iv. Salaries of High Court judges
Codes:
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Article 221: Salaries of High Court judges
Article 222: Transfer of judges
Article 223: Appointment of acting Chief Justice
Article 224: Appointment of additional and acting judges
4. Which of the following statements are correct?
Government judicial service candidates need not resign to participate in the District Judge selection process as per Vijay Kumar Misra v. Patna High Court.
In S. Kazi v. Muslim Education Society, the Supreme Court held that all tribunals are not necessary parties to a case where legality of their orders is challenged.
In Cardamom Marketing Corporation v. State of Kerala, the Supreme Court observed that social security for lawyers is part of the legal system.
In Union of India v. Rajasthan High Court, the Supreme Court exempted High Court judges from airport frisking.
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The first three statements are based on correct Supreme Court rulings. However, the fourth statement is incorrect; the Supreme Court did not exempt High Court judges from airport frisking.
10. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer:
A. Union of India v. Sankalchand Seth – 4. Appointment/Transfer of Judges
B. Leila David v. State of Maharashtra – 3. Power to punish for contempt
C. R.S.E.S. Ltd. v. Fennen India Ltd. – 2. Foreign precedent
D. Darshan Gupta v. Radhika Gupta – 1. Power to do
Answer: (a) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
Explanation: Each case corresponds to the listed constitutional issue based on judgments and legal precedents.
6. A 'distinguished jurist' can be appointed as a judge of:
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Article 124(3) allows a distinguished jurist to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court by the President of India.
10. Arrange the following advisory opinions of the Supreme Court under Article 143 in correct chronological order:
In re Keshava Singh
In re Berubari case
In re Delhi Laws Act case
In re Sea Customs Act
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Delhi Laws Act (1951)
Berubari Union (1960)
Sea Customs Act (1964)
Keshava Singh (1965)
4. Match List-I with List-II:
A. Appointment of Supreme Court Judges
B. Jurisdiction of Supreme Court as Court of Record
C. Original Jurisdiction of Supreme Court
D. Power of Supreme Court to withdraw and transfer cases
In Re: Vinay Chander Mishra
SC Advocates-on-Record Assn. v. Union of India
A.R. Antulay v. R.S. Nayak
State of Karnataka v. Union of India
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
A – 2: Appointment of judges – SC Advocates-on-Record Assn.
B – 1: Jurisdiction as Court of Record – In Re: Vinay Chander Mishra
C – 4: Original jurisdiction – State of Karnataka v. Union of India
D – 3: Withdrawal and transfer of cases – A.R. Antulay v. R.S. Nayak
4. The Supreme Court or the High Court in exercise of judicial review can declare a law passed by Parliament or State Legislature invalid on which of the following grounds?
It is not within the competence of the legislature which passed it.
It contravenes fundamental rights or other constitutional provisions.
The legislature did not apply its mind or acted arbitrarily or with improper motive.
Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: A law can be invalidated for being ultra vires or violative of fundamental rights. Motives of the legislature are generally not justiciable unless procedural requirements are not followed.
5. According to Article 233 of the Constitution of India, appointment of a District Judge shall be made by:
Answer: (c) Governor of the State in consultation with the High Court having jurisdiction
Explanation: Article 233 specifies that the appointment of District Judges shall be made by the Governor in consultation with the concerned High Court.
9. Which of the following statements are correct?
The Supreme Court of India has Original Jurisdiction in any dispute between the Government of India and one or more states.
The Supreme Court of India has Original Jurisdiction in any dispute between the Government of India and any state on one side and one or more states on the other side.
The Supreme Court of India has Original Jurisdiction in any dispute between the Government of India and an individual on one side and one or more states on the other side.
The Supreme Court of India has Original Jurisdiction in any dispute in India.
Answer: (a) 1 and 2
Explanation: Article 131 of the Constitution provides original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court in disputes between the Government of India and one or more states, or between two or more states. It does not cover disputes involving individuals.
7. Assertion (A): The rule-making power of the Supreme Court for regulating its practice and procedure is not subject to any law made by the Parliament of India.
Reason (R): Only an impartial and independent judiciary can protect the rights of individuals without fear or favour.
Choose the correct answer:
Answer: (d)
The assertion is false because Article 145(1) of the Constitution of India explicitly states that the Supreme Court may, from time to time, make rules for regulating its own practice and procedure, subject to any law made by Parliament. This means the rule-making power is not completely independent of parliamentary law.
The reason is true: an impartial and independent judiciary is essential for upholding individual rights and ensuring justice without bias or influence.
Comprehension:
Privacy of the individual is an essential aspect of dignity. Dignity has both an intrinsic and instrumental value. As an intrinsic value, dignity is an entitlement or a constitutionally protected interest in itself. In its instrumental facet, dignity and freedom are inseperably inter-twined. Each being a facilitative tool to achieve the other. The ability of the individual to protect a zone of privacy enables the realization of the full value of life and liberty. Liberty has a broader meaning of which privacy is a subset. All liberties may not be exercised in privacy. Yet others can be fulfilled only within a private space. Privacy enables the individual to retain the autonomy of the body and mind. The autonomy of the individual is the ability to make decisions on vital matters of concern to life, Privacy has not been couched as an independent fundamental right. But that does not detract from the constitutional protection afforded to it. Once the true nature of privacy and its relationship with those fundamental rights which are expressly protected is understood. Privacy lies across the spectrum of protected freedoms.
2. Statement I: An appeal shall lie in the Supreme Court from any judgment, final order, or sentence in a criminal proceeding of a High Court if the High Court has reversed an acquittal and sentenced the accused to death.
Statement II: An appeal shall lie in the Supreme Court if a High Court has withdrawn a case from a subordinate court and after trial, convicted and sentenced the accused to death.
Choose the most appropriate answer:
Answer: (a)
Under Article 134(1) of the Constitution, both circumstances allow a direct appeal to the Supreme Court: (i) where an acquittal is reversed and a death sentence is passed; (ii) where the High Court tries the case itself after withdrawing it and awards a death sentence.
4. What is the correct chronological order of the following cases related to appointment and transfer of judges?
A. S.P. Gupta v. Union of India
B. Sakal Chand Seth v. Union of India
C. Special Reference No. 1 of 1998
D. Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association v. Union of India
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Chronological order by year: B (1976), A (1982), D (1993), and C (1998).
5. In which case was the strict application of the ‘Rule of Locus Standi’ first diluted?
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The Ratlam case (1980) allowed a resident to bring an issue to court concerning sanitation and public health, relaxing the strict rule of locus standi.
17. Which was the first case in which the Public Interest Litigation (PIL) was invoked?
Answer: (d) Mumbai Kamgar Sabha v. Abdul Bhai
Explanation: The case of Mumbai Kamgar Sabha v. Abdul Bhai (1976) is widely considered the starting point of PIL jurisprudence in India, where the Supreme Court began loosening traditional rules of standing.
18. Which of the following statements are correct with respect to Article 32 and procedural formalities in PIL cases?
A. It is necessary to follow all technical formalities even in PIL cases.
B. It is not necessary to follow technical formalities in such cases.
C. The Supreme Court may treat even a letter addressed to it as a writ petition in PIL.
D. Rule of locus standi is not relaxed in such cases.
Answer: (b) Only B and C are correct
Explanation: In PIL matters under Article 32, the Supreme Court has relaxed procedural formalities and locus standi rules. A letter or postcard can be treated as a writ petition if it concerns public interest, making B and C correct.
19. PIL cases are considered to be:
Answer: (c) Public interest cases
Explanation: PIL stands for Public Interest Litigation. It is a mechanism to seek justice for the public or a disadvantaged group, where the petitioner is not directly affected but acts in the interest of the public.
20. In PIL cases, what is the general position of the Supreme Court regarding the filing of petitions?
Answer: (b) The Supreme Court may waive this
Explanation: While the Court generally encourages petitions to be filed by public-spirited individuals, it has waived procedural requirements in many PIL cases and allowed even letters to be treated as writ petitions. The emphasis is on justice rather than rigid rules.
10. The Constitution of India confers original and exclusive jurisdiction on the Supreme Court in cases where there is a dispute:
(A) Between two or more States
(B) Arising out of any treaty entered into before commencement of the Constitution
(C) Between Union Govt and one or more States
(D) Between Union Govt and any States on one side and one or more States on the other
(E) Arising out of substantial question of law of general importance
Options:
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Article 131 of the Constitution grants the Supreme Court original and exclusive jurisdiction in disputes between the Union and one or more States, or between States inter se (A, C, D). Disputes arising out of treaties or general legal questions do not fall under this jurisdiction.
3. Match List I with List II.
List I (Title of the Article)
(A) National Judicial Appointments Commission
(B) Appointment of Acting Chief Justice
(C) Supreme Court to be a Court of Record
(D) Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
List II (Article Number)
(I) Article 126
(II) Article 131
(III) Article 124A
(IV) Article 129
Options:
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Article 124A: National Judicial Appointments Commission (now struck down)
Article 126: Acting Chief Justice
Article 129: Supreme Court as a court of record
Article 131: Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
14. Which authority is vested with the power of superintendence over tribunals?
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Article 227 of the Constitution grants High Courts supervisory jurisdiction over all courts and tribunals within their territory, ensuring legality, proper procedure, and fairness.
Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions
This is the greatest paradox involved in the doctrine of 'basic features', namely, that though it does not constitute a limitation on the legislature while enacting ordinary legislation, it would operate as a limitation on the 'Constituent' body, though in the same breath it is conceded that the latter is a 'Sovereign' authority while the Legislature is not. This means that while determining the validity of an ordinary law, the court can only look into the express provisions of the Constitution or the necessary implications thereof, but when the validity of a Constitution Amendment Act is challenged, the court may travel behind or beyond the express provisions of the Constitution to invoke some principles superior to express provisions to find whether the impunged amendment is in tune with those principles, which arere supposed to Constitute the 'norm' behind the specific provisions of the Constitution. In short, it involve an illogical attempt to usher in the doctrines of 'Spirit of the Constitution' or of 'natural law, through the backdoor, to circumscribe the Constitution itself, while it had been openly rejected as a limitation upon ordinary legislation
While determining the validity of an ordinary law, what can the court look into?
Answer: (c) The court can only look into express provisions of the Constitution or the necessary implications thereof
As per the apprehension of the author, when may a court travel beyond the express provisions of the Constitution to invoke some principles superior to the express provisions ?
Answer: (c) When the validity of a Constitution Amendment Act is challenged
What does the author identify as the greatest paradox involved in the doctrine of basic features?
Answer: (d)
What does the author consider to be the doctrine used to circumscribe the Constitution?
Answer: (a) Doctrine of 'Spirit of the constitution' and 'natural law
Which of the following options reflect the opinion of the author as can be discerned from the cited paragraph?
Answer: (a)
Which Article is referred to as the "heart and soul" of the Indian Constitution?
Answer: (a) Article 32
Explanation: Dr. Ambedkar called Article 32 the heart and soul of the Constitution because it provides the right to constitutional remedies.
Arrange the following provisions in the correct Article-wise order as per the Indian Constitution
A. Establishment and Constitution of Supreme Court
B. Original jurisdiction of Supreme Court
C. Legislative power of Governor
D. Transfer of a judge from one High Court to another
E. Jurisdiction of existing High Courts
Answer: (a) A, B, C, D, E
Explanation: The correct order of articles is:
• E: Article 225 (Jurisdiction of existing High Courts)
• C: Article 213 (Legislative power of Governor)
• D: Article 222 (Transfer of judges)
• B: Article 131 (Original jurisdiction of Supreme Court)
• A: Article 124 (Establishment of Supreme Court)
Match the LIST-I with LIST-II LIST-I (Basic Feature) LIST-II (Judge and the case)
A. Independence of the judiciary I. Fazal Ali - SP Gupta V/s Union of India
B. Federal system II. Bachawat - Golak Nath V/s State of Punjab
C. Secularism III. Reddy - Kesavananda Bharati V/s State of Kerala
D. Parliamentary system of government IV. Khanna - Indira Gandhi V/s Raj Narain
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
Answer: (a) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
Passage for 31 Dec 2025 (Shift 1) Q141–Q145
Read the following passage and answer the questions below
"While interpreting the Articles of the Indian Constitution, the Court should remember that it is not construing a petrified legal parchment but reading the luscent lines of a human text with a national mission. The Court must never forget that the life of the Supreme Lex is nourished by the social setting, that jurisdical abstractions and theoretical conceptions may be fascinating forensics but jejune jurisprudence if the raw Indian realities are slurred over. The Constitution of a nation is being expounded whose people hunger for a full life for each, and therefore, a perception of the signature of social justice writ on it is imperative. 'Nothing is more certain in modern 'society', declared the American Supreme Court at midcentury 'than the principle that there are no absolutes. Legal Einstienism guides the Court, not doctrinal absolutes."
What should the Court remember while interpreting the Articles of the Indian Constitution?
Answer: (b) That they are reading the luscent lines of a human text with a national mission
As per the American Supreme Court, what guides the Court?
Answer: (a) Legal Einstienism guides the Court
What must the Court never forget, according to the author?
Answer: (d) That the life of the Supreme Lex is nourished by the social setting
Why is a perception of the signature of social justice writ on the Constitution, an imperative for its exposition?
Answer: (d) It is because it is expounded for a nation whose people hunger for a full life for each
Which is the most certain principle in Modern society?
Answer: (c) The principle that there are no absolutes
Arrange the following advisory opinion of the Supreme Court under Article 143(1) in their ascending order
A. In re the Sea Custom Act
B. In re Special Court Bill
C. In re Keshav Singh
D. In re Berubari Union and Exchange of Enclaves
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
Answer: (a) D, A, C, B
Explanation: Arranging the Presidential References / Advisory Opinions under Article 143(1) in ascending chronological order of their decision date:
• D. In re Berubari Union and Exchange of Enclaves (1960):
Dealt with the implementation of the 1958 Indo-Pakistan agreement regarding the transfer/exchange of enclave territories.
• A. In re the Sea Customs Act (1963):
Dealt with whether Section 20(2) of the Sea Customs Act, 1878, imposing duties on goods owned by state governments, violated Article 289 of the Constitution.
• C. In re Keshav Singh / In re Special Reference No. 1 of 1964 (1965):
Dealt with the conflict between legislative privileges (Article 194) and the fundamental rights of individuals / powers of the judiciary (Articles 21 and 226).
• B. In re Special Courts Bill, 1978 (1979):
Dealt with the constitutionality of establishing Special Courts for the speedy trial of offenses committed by high public functionaries during the Emergency.
Match List I with List II LIST I LIST II
A. In re Kerala Education Bill I. Legislative Privilege
B. In re Keshav Singh II. Governor Power of Reserve Bill
C. In re Presidential Reference (1999) III. Election Matter
D. In re Special Reference No. 1 of 2002 IV. Appointment of Judges
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
Answer: (b) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Explanation: Matching each landmark Presidential Reference / Advisory Opinion under Article 143 from List I to its core legal subject matter in List II:
• A. In re Kerala Education Bill (1958) II. Governor Power of Reserve Bill:
The President referred the Kerala Education Bill to the Supreme Court after it was reserved by the Governor of Kerala for Presidential consideration under Article 200. The case dealt with the extent of State legislative powers and fundamental rights under Articles 14, 19, and 30.
• B. In re Keshav Singh / Special Reference No. 1 of 1964 (1965) I. Legislative Privilege:
Famously known as the Parliamentary Privileges Case, it dealt with a direct conflict between the legislative privileges of the State Legislative Assembly (Article 194) and the fundamental rights of individuals / jurisdiction of the judiciary (Articles 21 and 226).
• C. In re Presidential Reference (1999) IV. Appointment of Judges:
Famously known as the Third Judges Case (Special Reference No. 1 of 1998), the President sought the Supreme Court's opinion on the consultation process for the appointment and transfer of Supreme Court and High Court judges (Articles 124, 217, and 222), leading to the expansion of the Judicial Collegium system.
• D. In re Special Reference No. 1 of 2002 III. Election Matter:
Famously known as the Gujarat Assembly Election Matter, the President sought the opinion of the Supreme Court regarding the power of the Election Commission under Article 324 to schedule and conduct elections following the premature dissolution of the State Assembly.
No questions match these filters.