Unit II · Topic 2Union and State executive and their interrelationship – Previous Year Questions

36 previous year questions on Union and State executive and their interrelationship from UGC NET Law papers (2011–2025), including 5 assertion–reason, 5 match-the-list, 5 statement-based questions. The correct option is marked in green.

Questions

36 questions

June 2011

3. Which one of the following privileges is guaranteed to the President of India under Article 361 of the Constitution?

  1. (a)Not to participate in Parliamentary proceedings
  2. (b)He is answerable to the Chief Justice of India
  3. (c)He is not to be answerable to any Court during his term✓
  4. (d)Can address both Houses of Parliament during a joint session
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Article 361(1) provides immunity to the President and Governors from legal proceedings during their term of office. They shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of powers and duties of their office.

June 2011

5. Who has the power to dissolve the House of the People (Lok Sabha)?

  1. (a)The Council of Ministers
  2. (b)The Prime Minister
  3. (c)The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
  4. (d)The President✓
Answer & explanation

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Under Article 85, the President has the power to dissolve the Lok Sabha, usually on the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.

December 2012 – Paper 2

5. The satisfaction of the President means the satisfaction of the Council of Ministers and not his personal satisfaction, held in:

  1. (a)Samsher Singh v. State of Punjab✓
  2. (b)U.N. Roy v. Indira Gandhi
  3. (c)Ram Jawaya Kapoor v. State of Punjab
  4. (d)Sardar Lal v. Union Government
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

In Samsher Singh v. State of Punjab (1974), the Supreme Court ruled that the President acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, and the term “satisfaction of the President” means the collective decision of the Council, not personal discretion.

June 2013

4. The Supreme Court held that Election Commissioners cannot be treated on par with the Chief Election Commissioner in:

  1. (a)S.S. Dhanoa v. Union of India✓
  2. (b)T.N. Seshan v. Union of India
  3. (c)A.C. Jose v. Sivan Pillai
  4. (d)Venkatachalam v. A. Swamichan
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

In S.S. Dhanoa v. Union of India (1991), the Court ruled that Election Commissioners do not have equal powers and status as the Chief Election Commissioner.

June 2013 · Paper 2

5. Which of the following is considered the authority of power in India?

  1. (a)The Constitution of India✓
  2. (b)The President of India
  3. (c)The Parliament of India
  4. (d)The Supreme Court of India
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

The Constitution of India is the supreme authority from which all institutions derive their powers and functions.

December 2013 · Paper 2

5. The power of the President of India to issue an ordinance is a —

  1. (a)Legislative power✓
  2. (b)Executive power
  3. (c)Quasi-judicial power
  4. (d)Judicial power
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Under Article 123, the President can issue ordinances when Parliament is not in session. This is a legislative power since the ordinance has the same effect as a law passed by Parliament.

December 2013 · Paper 3 (With Admin LawAssertion–Reason

6. Read the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct answer:

Assertion (A): The Council of Ministers is the hub of the Parliamentary form of Government.

Reason (R): The Government is formed from the majority party.

  1. (a)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)✓
  2. (b)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  3. (c)(A) is true, (R) is false
  4. (d)(A) is false, (R) is true
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Both statements are factually correct. The Council of Ministers does function as the core of a parliamentary system, and the government is indeed formed by the majority party. However, the formation by the majority party is not the reason why the Council of Ministers is central to the system—hence, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

June 2014 · Paper 3

Q10. Under which Article of the Constitution is the President empowered to grant pardon?

  1. (a)Article 72✓
  2. (b)Article 74
  3. (c)Article 76
  4. (d)Article 78
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Article 72 gives the President the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment. This includes cases involving court martial and offenses against Union laws.

June 2014 · Paper 3Assertion–Reason

Q16. Assertion (A): The Indian Constitution provides for a parliamentary form of government.

Reason (R): The President of India is directly elected by the people.

  1. (a)Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
  2. (b)Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
  3. (c)A is true, but R is false✓
  4. (d)A is false, but R is true
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c)

Explanation: India indeed follows a parliamentary system where the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the legislature. However, the President is not directly elected by the people; instead, an electoral college elects the President.

December 2014 · Paper 2Match the lists

5. Match the following landmark cases with the related legal principles using the correct code:

A. Executive power must conform to the Constitution

B. Executive power is residual where there is no legislative or judicial power

C. Executive action can exist without legislative backing

D. The President is not bound to hear a petitioner before rejecting a mercy petition

Options:

  1. (a)A – 4, B – 1, C – 2, D – 3✓
  2. (b)A – 1, B – 4, C – 2, D – 3
  3. (c)A – 4, B – 1, C – 3, D – 2
  4. (d)A – 2, B – 3, C – 1, D – 4
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

(A) A. Sanjeevi Naidu v. State of Madras held that executive power must follow the Constitution.

(B) H.H. Maharajadhiraja Madhav Rao v. Union of India discussed residual executive powers.

(C) Maganbhai Ishwarbhai Patel v. Union of India allowed executive action even without legislative support.

(D) Kehar Singh v. Union of India confirmed that the President need not give a personal hearing in mercy petitions.

December 2014 · Paper 2

7. Which constitutional amendment introduced the provision that the total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15% of the strength of the Lok Sabha?

  1. (a)91st Amendment✓
  2. (b)92nd Amendment
  3. (c)93rd Amendment
  4. (d)95th Amendment
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a)

Explanation: The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 inserted this restriction to prevent the formation of oversized ministries and ensure accountability and efficiency in governance. It applies to both the Union and State Councils of Ministers.

December 2014 · Paper 3Sequence / order

6. If the Government is defeated on the floor of the Rajya Sabha, what is the consequence?

  1. (a)Parliament is dissolved
  2. (b)Prime Minister has to submit his resignation
  3. (c)President’s rule is imposed
  4. (d)Nothing happens✓
Answer & explanation

Answer: (d)

Explanation: The Government is accountable to the Lok Sabha, not the Rajya Sabha. A defeat in the Rajya Sabha does not impact the Government’s existence.

June 2015 Paper 3Match the lists

11. Match the following cases (List I) with the corresponding legal doctrines (List II):

List I:

A. Ram Jawaya Kapur v. State of Punjab

B. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

C. Vineet Narain v. Union of India

D. Union of India v. Hindustan Development Corporation

List II:

Doctrine of post-decisional hearing

Doctrine of public accountability

Doctrine of separation of powers

Doctrine of legitimate expectation

Codes:

  1. (a)A–3, B–1, C–2, D–4✓
  2. (b)A–4, B–2, C–1, D–3
  3. (c)A–1, B–4, C–3, D–2
  4. (d)A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

A. Ram Jawaya Kapur v. State of Punjab established the doctrine of separation of powers.

B. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India dealt with the doctrine of post-decisional hearing.

C. Vineet Narain v. Union of India is associated with the doctrine of public accountability.

D. Union of India v. Hindustan Development Corporation introduced the doctrine of legitimate expectation.

December 2015 · Paper 2Match the lists

3. Match the following:

A. S.R. Chaudhuri v. State of Punjab – 4. Non-member cannot be reappointed as minister if not elected within six months

B. Murali S. Devra v. Union of India – 1. Ban on smoking at public places

C. Food Corporation of India v. Bharatiya Khadya Nigam Karmachari Sangh – 2. Two extra increments to employees for higher qualification

D. Javed v. State of Haryana – 3. Disqualification on basis of number of children for panchayat election

  1. (a)4 1 2 3✓
  2. (b)4 2 1 3
  3. (c)2 3 1 4
  4. (d)3 2 4 1
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Each case listed corresponds to a distinct constitutional or service-related principle, correctly matched above.

December 2015 · Paper 2

6. In which of the following cases did Justice Pasayat hold that a pardon obtained on the basis of a manifest mistake or fraud can be rescinded?

  1. (a)G. Krishna Goud v. State of Andhra Pradesh
  2. (b)Maru Ram v. Union of India
  3. (c)Epuru Sudhakar v. Government of Andhra Pradesh✓
  4. (d)Kehar Singh v. Union of India
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c)

Explanation: In Epuru Sudhakar v. Govt. of A.P., the Supreme Court held that if a pardon is granted based on mala fide reasons or fraud, it can be revoked.

July 2016 Paper 3

According to the convention of Parliamentary Democracy, the Prime Minister must be from the House of the People.

Article 83 of the Constitution deals with the duration of the Houses of Parliament.

  1. (a)1, 2 and 3 are correct
  2. (b)1, 3 and 4 are correct
  3. (c)2, 3 and 4 are correct
  4. (d)1, 2, 3 and 4 are all correct✓
Answer & explanation

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

All four statements are correct. In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), the Supreme Court ruled that the basic structure of the Constitution cannot be amended. Parliamentary democracy is part of this basic structure. By convention, the Prime Minister must belong to the Lok Sabha. Article 83 specifies the term of the Houses of Parliament.

September 2016Statements

5. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the office of the Governor?

Executive action taken in the name of the Governor is the executive action of the State.

The Governor cannot be held personally answerable for any portion of the address to the joint session.

The Governor is bound to exercise all his powers and functions on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers.

The Governor of a State shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.

  1. (a)1, 2 and 4✓
  2. (b)1, 3 and 4
  3. (c)2, 3 and 4
  4. (d)1, 2 and 3
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct. Article 154 provides that executive action of the state is taken in the name of the Governor. Article 166 protects the Governor from personal liability. Article 155 mentions appointment by the President. However, Statement 3 is not always true, as there are certain discretionary powers vested in the Governor under Article 163.

January 2017 Paper 2

6. Justice Mukherjee, speaking for the court, stated that although the executive power is vested in the President, he is only a formal head, and real power lies with the Council of Ministers. This was held in which case?

  1. (a)U.N.R. Rao v. Indira Gandhi
  2. (b)Ram Jawaya Kapur v. State of Punjab✓
  3. (c)Jayantilal Amratlal Shodhan v. F.N. Rao
  4. (d)Sardarilal v. Union of India
Answer & explanation

Answer: (b)

Explanation: In Ram Jawaya Kapur v. State of Punjab (1955), the Supreme Court clarified that although the Constitution vests executive power in the President, it is exercised by the Council of Ministers, making the President a nominal head.

November 2017Assertion–Reason

4. Assertion (A): No person is eligible for appointment as Governor unless he is a citizen of India and has completed the age of thirty-five years.

Reason (R): The Governor is debarred from holding any other office of profit during his term of office.

  1. (a)Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. (b)Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A✓
  3. (c)A is true, but R is false
  4. (d)A is false, but R is true
Answer & explanation

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Article 157 lays down eligibility (citizen and 35 years), and Article 158 prohibits the Governor from holding any other office of profit. Both statements are true, but R is not an explanation of A.

July 2018Statements

4. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

The election of the President shall be held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of single non-transferable vote.

The President may resign by writing under his hand addressed to the Chief Justice of India.

No resolution to remove the Vice-President shall be moved unless at least thirty days notice has been given.

The Vice-President shall, notwithstanding the expiration of his term, continue to hold office until his successor enters upon his office.

  1. (a)1, 2, 3 and 4 are incorrect
  2. (b)1, 2 and 3 are incorrect✓
  3. (c)Only 1 and 2 are incorrect
  4. (d)Only 1 is incorrect
Answer & explanation

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect — the President is elected by single transferable vote, not non-transferable. Statement 2 is incorrect — resignation is addressed to the Vice President. Statement 3 is incorrect — it requires 14 days’ notice. Statement 4 is correct.

July 2018Match the lists

5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct code:

A. K.M. Nanavati v. State of Bombay – 2. Power to pardon

B. Ram Prasad v. State of U.P. – 3. Fundamental Duties

C. Lily Thomas v. Union of India – 4. Disqualification of members

D. Dr. P. Nallar Thampy Terah v. Union of India – 1. Right to life

Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1

Explanation: The given cases correspond to the mentioned constitutional themes as per Supreme Court rulings.

December 2018

7. In which case did the Supreme Court rule that placing an ordinance before the legislature is mandatory, and repeated promulgation is a fraud on the Constitution?

  1. (a)Krishna Kumar Singh v. State of Bihar✓
  2. (b)R.K. Garg v. Union of India
  3. (c)Maru Ram v. Union of India
  4. (d)K.M. Nanavati v. State of Bombay
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a)

Explanation: In Krishna Kumar Singh v. State of Bihar (2017), the Court held that re-promulgation of ordinances without legislative approval is unconstitutional and amounts to a fraud on the Constitution.

December 2018Assertion–Reason

9. Assertion (A): The Council of Ministers holds office during the pleasure of the President of India.

Reason (R): The President of India can dismiss Ministers at his discretion.

  1. (a)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. (b)Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  3. (c)(A) is true, but (R) is false✓
  4. (d)(A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c)

Explanation: While ministers hold office at the pleasure of the President (Art. 75), this is exercised on the advice of the Prime Minister. The President cannot act independently.

June 2019

2. In which case did the Supreme Court rule that a Governor cannot exercise the power of sentence suspension under Article 213 during the period when the Supreme Court is seized of the case. The order of the Governor could only operate until the matter became subjudice in the Supreme Court and it becomes so on the filing of the petition for special leave to appeal?

  1. (a)Satpal Dang v. State of Punjab
  2. (b)D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar✓
  3. (c)K.M. Nanavati v. State of Bombay
  4. (d)A.K. Roy v. Union of India
Answer & explanation

Answer: (b)

Explanation: In D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar (1987), the Court clarified that once a matter becomes sub judice in the Supreme Court upon filing of a special leave petition, the Governor's suspension order loses effect.

June 2019

7. In which case did Chief Justice Sikri observe:

"Nobody can be above the institution which he is supposed to serve. He is merely the creature of the institution, he can exist only if the institution exists. To protect the individual as mighter than the Constitution would be grave injustice."

  1. (a)S.S. Dhanoa v. Union of India
  2. (b)T.N. Seshan v. Union of India
  3. (c)Presidential Reference (2000)
  4. (d)A.C. Jose v. Sivan Pillai✓
Answer & explanation

Answer: (d)

Explanation: In A.C. Jose v. Sivan Pillai, CJI Sikri emphasized that no individual can be superior to the institution, affirming the supremacy of institutional integrity over personal authority.

December 2019Match the lists

11. Match List I with List II regarding Articles of the Constitution:

Choose the correct option:

  1. (a)2 1 4 3
  2. (b)2 4 1 3✓
  3. (c)3 4 1 2
  4. (d)4 3 2 1
Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) 2 4 1 3

Explanation:

Article 153: Governor for each state

Article 154: Executive power of the State

Article 155: Appointment of Governor

Article 156: Term of office of Governor

June 2020

1. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that the pardoning powers of the President under Article 72 and the Governors under Article 161 are subject to judicial review?

  1. (a)Satya Narain Sharma v. State of Rajasthan
  2. (b)Vineet Narain v. Union of India
  3. (c)Epuru Sudhakar v. State of Andhra Pradesh✓
  4. (d)Chhotey Lal v. State of U.P.
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) Epuru Sudhakar v. State of Andhra Pradesh

Explanation: In this 2006 judgment, the Supreme Court held that the exercise of pardoning powers by the President and Governors is subject to judicial review if it is arbitrary, mala fide, or based on irrelevant considerations.

June 2020

7. Article 72 of the Indian Constitution makes a provision for:

  1. (a)Discharge of the President's functions in other contingencies
  2. (b)Power of President to grant pardons, suspend, remit or commute sentences✓
  3. (c)Extent of executive power of the Union
  4. (d)Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President
Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) Power of President to grant pardons, suspend, remit or commute sentences

Explanation: Article 72 confers the President with the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment.

December 2020/June 2021

1. What happens when the Vice President of India’s term expires?

  1. (a)Vacates his office
  2. (b)Gets a mandatory extension of 2 months
  3. (c)Continues to hold office until successor enters upon office✓
  4. (d)Elects his successor before relinquishing office
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c)

As per Article 67(c) of the Indian Constitution, the Vice President continues to hold office until his successor assumes charge. Hence, there is no automatic vacancy upon term completion unless a new Vice President takes over.

December 2020/June 2021Statements

4. Which of the following statements are true under the Constitution of India?

(1) Article 61 deals with impeachment of the President.

(2) Article 142 provides that law declared by Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts.

(3) Article 122 provides that courts shall not inquire into proceedings of Parliament.

(4) Article 163 deals with extent of executive power of State.

Options:

  1. (a)1, 2 and 3
  2. (b)2 and 3
  3. (c)1 and 3✓
  4. (d)1, 3 and 4
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c)

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Article 61 provides for the impeachment procedure of the President. Article 122 restricts courts from inquiring into parliamentary proceedings. Article 142 is binding law by Supreme Court but wasn't included in correct answer due to some interpretation error in original key. Article 163 deals with the role of the Council of Ministers, not directly about "extent" of executive power.

December 2021/June 2022Assertion–Reason

1. Assertion (A): The President of India is a mere constitutional head.

Reason (R): In the parliamentary form of government, the Prime Minister is the head of government.

Choose the correct answer:

  1. (a)Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A✓
  2. (b)Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. (c)A is true but R is false
  4. (d)A is false but R is true
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a)

Both the assertion and reason are correct. The President of India acts as a nominal or constitutional head, with real executive power exercised by the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers. This is inherent in the parliamentary system adopted by the Constitution.

December 2021/June 2022Statements

7.

Statement I: It is the duty of the Prime Minister to communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation.

Statement II: It is also the duty of the Prime Minister to furnish such information relating to the administration and legislative proposals as the President may call for.

Answer & explanation

Answer: (a)

Both statements are correct. Article 78 of the Constitution lays down the duties of the Prime Minister, which include informing the President of all decisions of the Council of Ministers and furnishing any information that the President may request.

December 2021/June 2022Statements

15. Choose the correct statements:

(A) Courts cannot review the question of "aid and advice" given by Council of Ministers to the President.

(B) The question of "aid and advice" by the Council of Ministers is a justiciable issue.

(C) Article 14 cannot be invoked against discrimination made by constitutional provisions.

(D) The question of "aid and advice" by the Council of Ministers is a non-justiciable issue.

(E) Article 14 can be invoked against discrimination made by constitutional provisions.

Answer & explanation

Answer: (b)

Correct options are A, C, and D.

Article 74(2) bars courts from inquiring into advice tendered to the President. The question of advice is non-justiciable. Article 14 applies only to laws and executive actions, not to constitutional provisions.

December 2023

9. Under what circumstances can a Governor exercise discretion under Article 163?

(A) Appointment of Chief Minister

(B) Dismissal of ministry or dissolution of Assembly

(C) Submitting report to the President under Article 356

(D) Appointment of High Court Judges

Options:

  1. (a)(A), (B), (C) only✓
  2. (b)(B), (C), (D) only
  3. (c)(D), (C), (A) only
  4. (d)(D), (A), (B) only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Governor acts in discretion in specific situations such as appointing a CM when there’s no clear majority, recommending President’s Rule (Art. 356), and dismissing a non-functioning ministry. High Court judge appointments are made by the President in consultation with the Governor and the Chief Justice, not under Governor’s discretion. So, (A), (B), and (C) are correct.

June 2025 · Q43

Which of the following is not true in the context of powers of the President under the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a)A. The President is the Supreme Commander of the Defence Forces of the country✓

B. All treaties and international agreements are negotiated and concluded in the name of the President though subject to ratification by the Parliament

C. President has power to summon and prorogue the Parliament and can dissolve the Lok Sabha

D. President is empowered to promulgate ordinances during recess of Parliament under Article 213 of the Indian Constitution

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. (a)D Only✓
  2. (b)B, C Only
  3. (c)C Only
  4. (d)A, B
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) D Only

Explanation: Article 213 applies to Governors, not the President. The President promulgates ordinances under Article 123.

31 Dec 2025 (Shift 1) · Q57

Which Article of the Constitution of India provides that "Government of India can be sued in the name of Union of India and State Government may be sued in the name of State"?

  1. (a)Art. 300 (1)✓
  2. (b)Art. 270
  3. (c)Art. 1
  4. (d)Art. 110
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) Art. 300 (1)

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