Unit IX · UGC NET Law PYQIntellectual Property Rights and Information Technology Law

Given below are two statements on eis labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as

Reason R

Assertion A : Once a performer consents to the incorporation of his performance in a cinematograph film by a written agreement he/she will not object to the enjoyment of the performer's right by the producer in the same film

Reason R: The performer is entitled to royalties in case the producer of the film makes use of the performance for commercial use

In linght of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1. (a)Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
2. (b)Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A✓
3. (c)A is correct but R is not correct
4. (d)A is not correct but R is correct

Arrange the following in chronological order starting from earlier to later years of enectment

(A) The Trade Marks Act

(B) The Patents Act

(C) The Design Act

(D) The copyright Act

(E) The Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers Rights Act

Choose the correct answer from the option given below

1. (a)A, B, C, D, E
2. (b)B, D, A, E, C
3. (c)D, B, A, C, E✓
4. (d)A, B, C, E, D

Trade secrets do not cover the following information

1. (a)Commercially valuable
2. (b)Production methods
3. (c)Business plans
4. (d)Information Discovered by reverse engineering✓

Which one of the following is incorrect?

1. (a)Patents are granted to encourage inventions
2. (b)Protection and enforcement of patents contribute to technological innovation
3. (c)Patented invention shall be available at reasonable affordable price
4. (d)The invention shall be published before applying for patent✓

In respect of which of the following items India does not have legislations to specifically cover them as Intellectual property

(A) Traditional Knowledge

(B) Street Art

(C) Publicity Right

(D) Celebrity Right

(E) Computer Programme

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)(B), (D) and (E) Only
2. (b)(C), (D) and (E) Only
3. (c)(A), (B), (C) and (D) Only✓
4. (d)(B), (C), (D) and (E) Only

With respect to which of the following kind of IPR, there exists a statutory ban for assignment?

1. (a)Patents
2. (b)Trademarks
3. (c)Geographical Indication✓
4. (d)Layout Designs of Integrated Circuits

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as

Reason (R)

Assertion (A): Trade Secrets Act, 2020 is a legislation enacted in India to provide for confidential informations and trade secrets

Reason (R): India has enacted a number of legislations to create legal framework on intellectual property rights (IPRs) In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1. (a)Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. (b)Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (c)(A) is correct but (R) is not correct
4. (d)(A) is not correct but (R) is correct✓

Match List - I with List - II

List- I UN days relating to IPR and Biological diversity

List- IП Days

(A) World Intellectual Property day (1) April 23

(B) World Book and Copyright day (II) May 22

(C) International Day for Biological diversity (III) April 21

(D) World Creativity and Innovation day (IV) April 26

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)(A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(1), (D)-(III)
2. (b)(A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)✓
3. (c)(A)-(I), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
4. (d)(A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)

Match List - I with List - II

List - I (Relief under IPR suits)

(A) Anton Piller Order

(B) Mareva Injunction

(C) John Doe Order

(D) Dynamic Injunction

List - II (Concept)

(1) Legal action against unknown parties (II) Right to search premises and seize evidence without prior warning (III) Injunction order against all mirror websites (IV) Freezing of defendant's assets

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)(A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
2. (b)(A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(1), (D)-(IV)
3. (c)(A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)✓
4. (d)(A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)

Match the following types of IPR with their concepts

List-I (Type of IPR)

A. Geographical Indication

B. Trademark

C. Patent

D. Copyright

List-II (Concept)

1. Post-grant opposition

2. Protection of Right Management Information (RMI)

3. Prohibition of assignment

4. Honest concurrent use

1. (a)A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
2. (b)A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II✓
3. (c)A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-I
4. (d)A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: While TRIPS Agreement goes on to outline certain standards of protection for Geographical Indications (GIs), it does not prescribe a particular form of protection so long as these standards are met

Reason R: Viewed in the historical context, it is unsurprising that while TRIPS reflects the relatively stable referent for trademarks, for GIs the definition is more fluid. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1. (a)Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A✓
2. (b)Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
3. (c)A is correct but R is not correct
4. (d)A is not correct but R is correct

Arrange the following Intellectual Property Laws in Chronological order

A. The Trade Marks Act

B. The Geographical Indication of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act

C. The Patent Act

D. The Biological Diversity Act

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)B, C, A, D
2. (b)C, A, D, B
3. (c)A, C, D, B
4. (d)C, A, B, D✓

"If one's artistic expressions are synonymous with one's personality, then they are deserving of protection just as much as the physical person." The above observation is true about which theory of intellectual property?

1. (a)Moral desert theory
2. (b)Personality theory✓
3. (c)Utilitarian theory
4. (d)Libertian theory

Arrange the theories of intellectual property in order of prominence and influence

A. Personality theory

B. Social Planning theory

C. Labour Theory

D. Utilitarian Theory

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)A, D, C, B
2. (b)B, A, C, D
3. (c)C, B, D, A
4. (d)D, C, A, B✓

Prof. William Fisher identified four analytical constructs of theories of intellectual property under which of the following sequence?

(1) Personality Theory

(2) Labour Theory

(3) Social Planning Theory

(4) Utilitarian Theory

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)(2), (1), (4), (3)
2. (b)(3), (2), (1), (4)
3. (c)(4), (2), (1), (3)✓
4. (d)(1), (4), (3), (2)

Which theory in IPR is based on the value that the law should not reward creators whose intellectual works harm life, health, liberty or society generally?

1. (a)Moral Right Theory
2. (b)Human Right Theory
3. (c)Creative Destruction Theory
4. (d)Moral Desert Theory✓

Match List - I with List - II

List - I (IPR Theory)

(A) Personhood Theory

(B) Natural Right Theory

(C) Incentive Theory

(D) Creative Destruction Theory

(1)

List - II (Proponents/Jurists/Writers) John Locke (II) Joseph Schumpeter (III) Immanuel Kant (IV) William Nordhuas

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)(A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
2. (b)(A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(1)
3. (c)(A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
4. (d)(A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)✓

Which of the following theory/theories is/are not closely connected to Intellectual Property Rights (IPR)?

A. Economic Theory

B. Autopoietic Legal Theory

C. Social Planning Theory

D. Instrumentalist Theory

E. Social Contract Theory

1. (a)C and D only
2. (b)A and E only
3. (c)B only✓
4. (d)D only

Which of the following case illustrates the patent bargain metaphor which is an application of social contract theory?

1. (a)Universal Oil Products V/s Globe Oil & Refining Co✓
2. (b)Georgia V/s Public Resource Org. Inc
3. (c)Fogerty V/s Fantasy Inc
4. (d)Fourth Estate Public Benefit Corpn. V/s Wall-street.Com., LLC

The preamble to agreement on Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) lays down

1. public policy objectives of national system

2. special needs of the least developed countries

3. resolving IP disputes through multilateral procedures

4. establishing mutually supportive relationship between WTO and WIPO

Which of following is/are true?

1. (a)Only 1 is true
2. (b)Only 1 and 2 are true
3. (c)Only 1, 2 and 3 are true
4. (d)1, 2, 3 and 4 are true✓

Nothing in TRIPS agreement, 1995 shall derogate from the existing obligations prescribed under

TRIPS , 1995

(1) Paris Convention, 1967

(2) Rome Convention,1961

(3) Berne Convention, 1971

(4) Biodiversity Convention, 1989

(5) Integrated Circuit Treaty, 1989

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)(1), (2), (3), (4) only
2. (b)(2), (3), (4), (5) only
3. (c)(1), (2), (3), (5) only✓
4. (d)(5), (4), (3), (1) only

The Berne Convention, 1886 deals with

1. (a)Copyright Law✓
2. (b)Trade Mark Law
3. (c)Designs Law
4. (d)Geographical Indications Law (peer. . )

Which of the following international legal instrument is relating to patent?

1. (a)Budapest Treaty, 1977✓
2. (b)Madrid Agreement, 1891
3. (c)Berne Convention, 1886
4. (d)Washington Treaty, 1989

Which of the following international treaty deal with access to published works for visually impaired and print disabled people?

1. (a)Marrakesh Treaty✓
2. (b)Beijing Treaty
3. (c)Rome Treaty
4. (d)Geneva Treaty

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II LIST-I (WIPO administered IPR Treaties) LIST-II (Year of Adoption)

A. Patent Law Treaty I. 2024

B. Riyadh Design Law Treaty II. 2000

C. WIPO Copyright Treaty III. 1981

D. Nairobi Treaty IV. 1996

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III✓
2. (b)A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
3. (c)A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
4. (d)A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

Arrange the following IPR Treaties in the chronological order of their adoption (ascending order)

A. Beijing Treaty on Audio-Visual Performances

B. Singapore Treaty on Law of Trademarks

C. Madrid Agreement (Marks)

D. Madrid Protocol (Marks)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)A, B, D, C
2. (b)C, D, B, A✓
3. (c)C, B, D, A
4. (d)B, C, D, A

Arrange the following Treaties/Convention in Chronological Order

A. Trade Mark Law Treaty

B. Brussels (Satellite) Convention

C. Budapest Treaty

D. Rome Convention

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)A, B, C, D
2. (b)B, C, D, A
3. (c)B, A, D, C
4. (d)D, B, C, A✓

The main focus of Marrakesh (VIP) Treaty for Copyright are following

A. Providing access to published works for visually impaired person

B. India was the first country to ratify the treaty

C. The treaty does not have provision to permit cross border sharing of these accessible format works

D. It sets a norm for countries ratifying the treaty to have a domestic copyright exception

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)A, B, C and D only
2. (b)A, C and D only
3. (c)A and B only
4. (d)A, B and D only✓

Super Cassettes Industries Ltd. v. Myspace Inc. 2011 is a leading case on the copyright Act, 1957 dealing with which section of the Act?

1. (a)Section 14
2. (b)Section 22
3. (c)Section 30
4. (d)Section 51✓

Match the following sections of the Copyright Act 1957 with provisions given there under

A. Section 2 (O) 2(O)

1. Performer Right

B. Section 38 38

2. Meaning of Literary work

C. Section 37 37

3. Meaning of sound recording

D. Section 2 (XX) 2(XX)

4. Broadcast reproduction right

Choose the correct option

A B C D

1. (a)2 1 4 3✓
2. (b)4 2 3 1
3. (c)2 3 1 4
4. (d)1 4 3 2

The provision under Copyright Act is given as under

1. Section 52 B deals with provision relating to accounts and audit

2. Section 53 A deals with resale share rights in original copies

3. Section 52 deals with importation of infringing copies

4. Section 53 deals with certain acts not to be infringement of copyright

Choose the correct option

1. (a)1 and 3
2. (b)2 and 4
3. (c)1 and 4
4. (d)1 and 2✓

In which of the following cases, the 'minimal creativity test' was laid down?

A. Eastern Book Company v. D.B. Modak

B. R.G. Anand V. Delux films/Deej. peer

C. Amar Nath Sehgal V. Union of India

D. University of London Press V. University Tutorial Press

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)A Only✓
2. (b)B Only
3. (c)C Only
4. (d)D Only

Match List I with List II

I -II

List I/I List II/II Provisions Sections of Copyright Act, 1957 , 1957

A. Performer I. Section 2 (q) 2

B. Performer's right II. Section 38 B 38

C. Performance III. Section 38 38

D. Moral Rights of IV. Section 2 (qq) Performer 2

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)A- I; B - III; C - IV; D - II
2. (b)A - II; B - I; C - IV; D - III
3. (c)A - III, B - I; C - II; D - IV
4. (d)A - IV; B - III; C – I; D - II✓

Resale share right in original copies under Section 53 A of the Copyright Act, 1957 is not applicable to

1. (a)Original copy of painting
2. (b)Original copy of sculpture
3. (c)Original manuscript of a literary or dramatic work
4. (d)Cinematograph film✓

Match List I with List II

I II

List I/I List II/II (a) Eastern Book Co. I. Idea Expression

v. D. B. Modak Dichotomy (2006, SC) . . (2006, ) (b) Bayer Corp v. II. Minimum of Union of India creativity Test (c) R.G. Anand v. III. Prior user Test Deluxe Films (1978 SC)/peer. (1978, (d) N. R. Dongre v. IV. Compulsory Whirlpool Corpn. license of patents (1996 SC)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
2. (b)A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III✓
3. (c)A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
4. (d)A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

The owner of the Copyright of the sound recording has which one of following right, under Sec 14 (e) of the Copyright Act, 1957

1. (a)to encrypt the sound recording
2. (b)to make any adaptation of the sound recording
3. (c)to communicate the sound recoding to the public✓
4. (d)to make any translation of the work recorded in the sound recording

Asha, a journalist employed, writes a story in the newspaper. Deepak makes a film based on the story. Raghu and Rekha plays the lead role in the film. The dance in the film is choreographed by Ajay

A. Asha is the author of literary work

B. Proprietor of the newspaper has copyright on the story, in the absence of a contract regarding copyright

C. Proprietor of the newspaper has only the Publication rights

D. Raghu and Rekha have performer's right

E. Ajay is the author of musical work

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)A, D and E only
2. (b)A, C and D only✓
3. (c)B and D only
4. (d)A, C, D and E only

Arrange the expiry of the term of copyright in an ascending order in following cases

A. A writes a book on 1. 10. 2000 and dies on

B. A book is written by an anonymous author and published on 1.10.2000. The identity of the author is disclosed on 2.11.2000, Author dies on 3.12.2000

C. A government work is published on 3.12.2000

D. Author dies on 3.12.2002 and his work published on 2.1.2003

E. A cinematograph film was published on 5.1- 1999

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)E, D, C, B, A
2. (b)E, C, B, A, D
3. (c)E, A, B, D, C
4. (d)E, C, A, B, D✓

"Moral Right" is a concept prevailing in

1. (a)Industrial Design
2. (b)Geographical Indication
3. (c)Trademark
4. (d)Copyright✓

Which of the following is not a 'fair dealing' under the Copyright Act?

1. (a)Private use
2. (b)Research purpose
3. (c)Reporting current affairs
4. (d)Commercial use✓

How do copyright laws of different jurisdictions consider software?

1. (a)It is considered a literary work✓
2. (b)It is considered an artistic work
3. (c)It is considered a non-copyrightable work
4. (d)It is considered a monopoly work

Can copyright subsist in a computer programme?

1. (a)No, since computer programmes are only readable by machines
2. (b)No, since all computer programmes have nothing original about it
3. (c)Yes, since all computer programmes are works of art
4. (d)Yes, of sufficient efforts or skill has been expended to give it a new and original character✓

Which provision of the Agreement on Trade Related Intellectual Property Rights provides copy right protection to computer programmes?

1. (a)Article 1(1)
2. (b)Article 2(10)
3. (c)Article 10(1)✓
4. (d)Article 10(10)

Can a computer programme be granted copyright if it produces only the multiplication tables?

1. (a)Yes, because a multiplication table is a work of art
2. (b)Yes, because there is creatively involved in it
3. (c)No, because the skill or effort to bring out such works is too trivial to term it new and of original character✓
4. (d)No, because it is just a discovery and not an invention

Where does Copyright subsist in?

1. (a)Copyright subsists in original works incapable of being reproduced
2. (b)Copyright subsists in non-original works capable of being reproduced
3. (c)Copyright subsist in original works capable of being reproduced✓
4. (d)Copyright subsists in all works irrespective of their capacity to be reproduced

Which international legal instrument incorporates the provision for protection of moral rights?

1. (a)Stockholm Convention
2. (b)Brussels Convention
3. (c)Berne Convention✓
4. (d)Rome Convention

Which of the following brought clarification on limitation on moral rights?

1. (a)Rome Conference
2. (b)Brussels Revision Conference alone
3. (c)Both Brussels Revision Conference and Stockholm Conference✓
4. (d)Stockholm Conference alone

In which year were 'moral rights' first introduced into the international system?

1. (a)1967
2. (b)1928✓
3. (c)1886
4. (d)1948

What is not correct about Rome Revision Conference, 1928?

1. (a)It incorporated moral rights into Berne Convention
2. (b)The text on moral rights introduced by 1928 Revision has never undergone any amendments✓
3. (c)The focus on Stockholm conference was not to nullify the moral rights introduced by Rome Conference
4. (d)The Brussels Revision Conference brought first amendment to the text of moral rights inserted by Rome Conference

Which is true about moral rights?

1. (a)The 1948 and 1967 amendments enlarged the scope of moral rights
2. (b)The Brussels revision conference and the Stockholm conference clarified limitations on moral rights✓
3. (c)The Brussels and Stockholm amendments brought substantial changes in the realm of moral rights
4. (d)The original Berne convention text itself carried provisions on moral rights

Which of the following is NOT a subject matter of copyright as per Section 13 of the Copyright Act, 1957 ?

1. (a)Cinematographic films
2. (b)Dramatic work
3. (c)Performance of performers✓
4. (d)Sound recording

The term of Copyright in published musical work under the Copyright Act, 1957 is?

1. (a)Copyright shall subsist until 60 years from the date of release of song
2. (b)Copyright shall subsist until 25 years from the date of release of song
3. (c)Copyright shall subsist until 60 years from the beginning of the calendar years next following the year in which author dies✓
4. (d)Copyright shall subsist until 25 years from the beginning of the calendar years next following the year in which author dies

What is the "Public Domain" in the context of copyright?

1. (a)Works that are owned by the public
2. (b)Works that are free to use without attribution
3. (c)Works for which copyright has expired or been waived✓
4. (d)Works that are published on the internet

Which one of the following act constitutes infringement of the copyright?

1. (a)The reading or recitation in public from a published literary or dramatic work for commercial purpose✓
2. (b)The reproduction of any work for the purpose of a judicial proceedings or for the purpose of a report of a judicial proceedings
3. (c)The reproduction of any work by a teacher or a pupil in the course of instruction
4. (d)The making of a three dimensional object from a two-dimensional artistic work, for a purpose of industrial application

In cases of offences of infringement of copyright the jurisdiction to try the offence vests with

1. (a)Commercial courts
2. (b)District Magistrate
3. (c)Metropolitan Magistrate of the Second Class
4. (d)Metropolitan Magistrate of the First Class✓

(The owner in case of Musical Work is

1. (a)The producer of the musical work
2. (b)The composer of the musical work✓
3. (c)The singer of the musical work
4. (d)The lyricist of the musical work

Bayer Corporation v. Union of India, 2011 case is dealing on which subject matters?

1. (a)Evergreening of patent
2. (b)Grant and sealing of patent
3. (c)Working of patenting process✓
4. (d)Surrender and revocation of patent

Which of the following Section of the Patent Act, 1970 provides for the subject matters that are not invention under the Act?

1. (a)Section 7
2. (b)Section 3✓
3. (c)Section 10
4. (d)Section 11

Arrange the following sections of the Patent Act, 1970 in chronological order (section wisefirst come basic)

A. Controller and other officers

B. Term of patent

C. Convention countries

D. Multiple Priorities

E. Licensing of related patents

Choose the most appropriate answer from te options given below

1. (a)B, A, E, C, D
2. (b)A, C, B, E, D✓
3. (c)C, A, D, E, B
4. (d)E, B, D, C, A

Arrange the correct sequence in which an application for grant of Patent will be considered

A. Opposition under section 25(2) of the Patents Act, 1970

B. Publication of application

C. Filling of claims

D. Request for examination

E. Grant of patents

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)B, D, C, A, E
2. (b)B, A, C, D, E
3. (c)C, B, D, E, A✓
4. (d)C, A, B, D, E

Which kind of patent is protectable in India?

1. (a)Design Patent
2. (b)Utility Patent
3. (c)Process Patent✓
4. (d)Plant Variety Patent

Which of the following statutes define 'person interested'?

1. (a)Patent Act, 1970✓
2. (b)Coрyright Act, 1957
3. (c)Industrial Designs Act, 2000
4. (d)Geographical Indication (Registration and Protection) Act, 2000

Arrange the following steps of the patent procedure (as per the Indian Patent Act) in correct sequence

A. Time for putting application in order for grant

B. Request for examination

C. Publication of application

D. Priority date of claims of a complete specification

E. Mention of inventor as such in patent

1. (a)D, C, B, A, E✓
2. (b)B, C, D, A, E
3. (c)E, A, D, C, B
4. (d)A, E, B, C, D

Which statements are incorrect with respect of Indian Patent Act, 1970?

A. Invention relating to atomic energy are not patentable

B. Originality and novelty are pre-requisites for patentability

C. IPAB (Intellectual Property Appellate Board) deals with all types of IPR disputes currently in India

D. A patent is valid for 20 years

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)C and D only
2. (b)A and B only
3. (c)A and D only
4. (d)B and C only✓

Which one of the following is not a ground for opposition proceedings to grant of patent, under Patent Act, 1970?

1. (a)That the invention so far as claimed in any claim of the complete specification has been published before the priority date of the claim
2. (b)That the complete specification does not disclose, the source of geographical origin of manufactured material used for the invention✓
3. (c)That the subject of any claim of the complete specification is not an invention within the meaning of the Patent Act, 1970
4. (d)That the applicant for the patent wrongfully obtained the invention

Which of the following Section of the Patent Act, 1970 deals with 'inventions relating to atomic energy'?

1. (a)Section 34
2. (b)Section 24
3. (c)Section 14
4. (d)Section 4✓

The absolute grounds for refusal of registration is contained under which section of the Trade Mark Act, 1999?

1. (a)Section 7
2. (b)Section 8
3. (c)Section 9✓
4. (d)Section 10

Macleods Pharmaceuticals Ltd. v. Tidal Laboratories Pvt. Ltd. (2011) is a case on which subject of intellectual property rights?

1. (a)Patent
2. (b)Trademark✓
3. (c)Design
4. (d)Geographical indications

Arrange the provisions of Trademark Act 1999 in chronological order (section wise)

1. classification of goods and services

2. regulation in case of honest concurrent use etc

3. limitation as to colour

4. absolute grounds for refusal of registration

Choose the correct option

1. (a)1, 2, 3, 4
2. (b)1, 3, 4, 2
3. (c)1, 4, 3, 2✓
4. (d)2, 3, 4, 1

Section 3(1) of the Trade Mark Act, 1999 deals with the provision relating to

1. (a)Refusal of registration
2. (b)Application for registration
3. (c)Appointment of Registrar of Trade Marks✓
4. (d)Correction and amendment in the application

Which of the following can be registered as a Trade Mark?

1. (a)Mark devoid of distinctive character
2. (b)A distinctive mark✓
3. (c)A mark causing confusion
4. (d)Oval shape for medicinal tablet

Which of the following can be registered as Trade Mark under the Trade Marks Act, 1999?

A. RASOI for hydrogenated oil

B. JHOOMRITALAIA for pens

C. BANK for banking service

D. Square shape for tyres

E. Obscene matters (things)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)B only
2. (b)A, B and D only
3. (c)B and D only✓
4. (d)C and E only

Arrange the following provisions of Trade Marks Act, 1999 in its correct order as appearing in the Act pertaining to trademark registration process?

(A) Relative grounds of refusal

(B) Withdrawal of acceptance

(C) Opposition to register

(D) Absolute grounds

(E) Honest concurrent use

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)(A), (B), (C), (D), (E)
2. (b)(D), (A), (E), (B), (C)✓
3. (c)(E), (B), (C), (A), (D)
4. (d)(B), (C), (E), (A), (D)

Following Marks are allowed to be registered under the Trademark Act, 1989 in India

A. The shape of a light bulb, where the shape functions to make the bulb more energy efficient

B. The term 'Icy Freeze' for the Ice Cream

C. The term 'Semiclo' for food processor

D. The term 'Matokla' for coffee

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)A and B only
2. (b)B and C only
3. (c)C and D only✓
4. (d)A and D only

The prohibition of registration of geographical indication under the GI Act, 1999 contains as many as

1. (a)four grounds
2. (b)five grounds
3. (c)six grounds
4. (d)seven grounds✓

Section 9 of the Geographical Indication of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act 1999 provides for

1. (a)Prohibition of Registration of certain geographical indications✓
2. (b)Registration of Homonymous geographical indications
3. (c)Geographical Indication Registry and Office thereof
4. (d)Geographical of Geographical Indications

The geographical indications are distinctive signs or indications which identify any goods as

(1) Act of unfair competition under Paris convention, 1967

(2) Originating in a specified territory

(3) Stipulate the misleading test guaranteeing a negative right

(4) Specific quality, reputation and characteristics

(5) Essentially attributable to origin

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)(1), (2), (3) Only
2. (b)(3), (4), (5) Only
3. (c)(1), (4), (2) Only
4. (d)(2), (4), (5) Only✓

Which of the following is NOT correct under the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999?

1. (a)Producer, in case of agricultural goods, includes the person who produces the goods
2. (b)Producer, in case of agricultural goods, includes the person who packages such goods
3. (c)Producer, in case of natural goods, includes the person who exploits such goods
4. (d)Producer, in case of handicrafts, includes the person who packages such goods✓

Match List I with List II LIST I (Geographical Indications) LIST II (State of Origin)

A. Venkatagiri Sarees I. Madhya Pradesh

B. Muga Silk II. Gujarat

C. Patan Patola III. Assam

D. Chanderi Silk IV. Andhra Pradesh

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I✓
2. (b)A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
3. (c)A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
4. (d)A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

Regulation of Access to Biological Diversity is described under which one of the following Chapters of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002?

1. (a)Chapter I
2. (b)Chapter II✓
3. (c)Chapter III
4. (d)Chapter IV

When the biological resources are accessed for commercial utilization or the bio-survey and bio-utilization leads to commercial utilization, the application the applicant shall have the option to pay the benefit-sharing ranging from

1. (a)0.1 to 0.2
2. (b)0.1 to 0.3
3. (c)0.1 to 0.4
4. (d)0.1 to 0.5✓

'Cyber Security' according to the IT Act, 2002 means

1. (a)a device and collection of devices, including input and output support devices and excluding calculations which are not programmable and capable of being used
2. (b)any electronic, magnetic, optical or other high speed data processing device or system which performs logical, arithmetic and memory functions by manipulation of electronic, magnetic or optical impulse
3. (c)protecting information, equipment, devices, computer, computer resource, communication device and information stored therein from unauthorised access, use, disclosure, disruption, modification or destruction✓
4. (d)affixing with its grammatical variations and cognate expressions means adoption of my methodology or procedure by a person for the purpose of authenticating an electronic record

Section 49 of the Information Technology Act deals with the provision relating to

1. (a)Establishment of Cyber Appellate Tribunal
2. (b)Qualification for appointment as Chairperson and member of Cyber Appellate Tribunal
3. (c)Composition of Cyber Appellate Tribunal✓
4. (d)Distribution of business among benches

By which amendment, the third and fourth schedules of the IT Act were omitted

1. (a)Act 10 of 2009✓
2. (b)Act 55 of 2002
3. (c)Act 66 of 2009
4. (d)Act 09 of 2009

By which amendment of information Technology Act, 2000 the third and fourth schedules were ommitted

A. Act 10 of 2009

B. Act 55 of 2009 2009 55

C. Act 66 of 2009

D. Act 09 of 2009

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)A only✓
2. (b)B only
3. (c)C only
4. (d)D only

The provision relating to 'legal recognition of electronic signatures' is contained under which section of Information Technology Act, 2000

1. (a)Section 3
2. (b)Section 3-A
3. (c)Section 4
4. (d)Section 5✓

The validity of contracts formed through electronic means is contained under which section of information technology Act, 2000?

1. (a)Section 3A
2. (b)Section 6A
3. (c)Section 7A
4. (d)Section 10A✓

Match List I with List II

List-I/I (Definitions of)

List-II/II (Provisions under Information Technology Act, 2000)

A. Computer (I) Section 2(g) 2(g)

B. Computer Network/(II) Section 2(k) 2(k)

C. Certifying Authority/(III) Section 2(j) 2(j)

D. Computer Resource/(IV) Section 2 (i) 2 (i)

Choose of the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)(A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
2. (b)(A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
3. (c)(A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)✓
4. (d)(A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

'Digital Signature' is defined under which section of information technology Act, 2000?

1. (a)Section 2(p)✓
2. (b)Section 2(q)
3. (c)Section 2 (r)
4. (d)Section 2(tb)

'Computer network' means the inter connection of one or more computers of computer systems or communication devices through

(A) The use of satellite, microwave, terrestrial line, wire, wireless or other communication media

(B) A device or collection of devices including input and output support devices

(C) Any electronic, magnetic, optical and other high speed data processing device

(D) All input, out, processing, storage, computer software or communication facilities

(C) Terminal or a complex consisting of two or more interconnected computers or communication device

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)(B) and (C) only
2. (b)(D) and (C) only
3. (c)(E) and (B) only
4. (d)(A) and (E) only✓

The term private key refers to

1. (a)Authentication of any electronic record by a subscriber
2. (b)Electronic signature certificate issued under section 35
3. (c)Key pair in an asymmetric crypto system
4. (d)Key of key pair used to create a digital signature✓

'Cyber security' is defined under which section of information technology Act, 2000?

1. (a)Section 2 (ua)
2. (b)Section 2 (za)
3. (c)Section 2 (nb)✓
4. (d)Section 2(tb)

Direction : Point out incorrect response

The purpose of the Information Technology Act, 2000 as set out in the Preamble is

1. (a)To provide legal recognition for transaction carried out by means of electronic data interchange
2. (b)To involve the use of alternatives to paperbased methods of communication and storage of information
3. (c)To facilitate electronic filling to documents with international agencies✓
4. (d)To amend the Indian Penal Code, 1860; the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the Bankers Books Evidence Act, 1891 and the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934

Match List I with List II

I II

List I/I List II

A. Asymmetric crypto I. Neighboring rights system

B. Rome Convention II. Industrial Property

C. Paris Convention, III. Trademark 1883

D. Madrid Protocol IV. Digital signature

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
2. (b)A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
3. (c)A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III✓
4. (d)A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

Match List - I with List - II

List- I Provision from IT Act

(A) Secure electronic Record

(B) Security procedures and practices

(C) Secure electronic signature

(D) Attribution of electronic record

List - II Section

(1) 16 (II) 15 (п1) 14 (IV) 11

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)(A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)✓
2. (b)(A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
3. (c)(А)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(1)
4. (d)(A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)

Arrange the following provisions in the correct section-wise order under the Information Technology Act, 2000

A. Penalty for misrepresentation

B. Punishment for identity theft

C. Punishment for cyber terrorism

D. Penalty for breach of confidentiality and privacy

E. Punishment for violation of privacy

1. (a)A, B, C, D, E
2. (b)C, B, A, E, D
3. (c)B, A, C, D, E
4. (d)B, E, C, A, D✓

Arrange the following provisions from the Information Technology Act, 2000 in the ascending order of their appearance in the Act

A. Validity of contracts formed through electronic means

B. Use of electronic records and electronic signatures in Government and its agencies

C. Retention of electronic records

D. Publication of rules, regulation etc. in electronic Gazette

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)A, B, C, D
2. (b)D, C, A, B
3. (c)B, C, D, A✓
4. (d)C, D, B, A

In which of the following case, the Supreme Court of India directed the Courts and Tribunals to ensure that all uploaded judgments and orders are signed using digital signatures and not as scanned copies of printed version?

1. (a)Ameena Begum V/s The State of Telangana (2023)
2. (b)D. K. Basu V/s State of West Bengal (1997)
3. (c)State Bank of India V/s Ajay Kumar (2021)✓
4. (d)Virbhadra Singh V/s Enforcement Directorate (2017)

The Cyber Regulations Appellate Tribunal Rule, 2000 has been passed under which section of the IT Act, 2000?

1. (a)Section 84
2. (b)Section 85
3. (c)Section 86
4. (d)Section 87✓

Cyber crime is coverd and punishable under which of the following provision of IPC?

(A) Section 354

(B) Section 354 C

(C) Section 354 D

(D) Section 354 E

(E) Section 350

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)B, C only✓
2. (b)B, C, D only
3. (c)A, B, C, E only
4. (d)B, C, D, E only

Which of the following is correct about the protected system under the Information Technology Act, 2000?

A. National Nodal Agency may declare any computer resource as the protected system

B. Central Government prescribes the information security practices and procedures for protected system

C. Protected system relates to the protection of the facilities of critical information infrastructure

D. Indian Computer Emergency Response Team has the overall responsibility for taking all measures for protection of protected system

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1. (a)A, B, C only
2. (b)B, C only✓
3. (c)C, D only
4. (d)A, D, C only

Which of the following provisions in the Information Technology Act, 2000 prescribe punishment for offences

(A) Section 65

(B) Section 66 D

(C) Section 67 В

(D) Section 52

(E) Section 62

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)(A), (B), (C) Only✓
2. (b)(C), (D), (E) Only
3. (c)(B), (C), (E) Only
4. (d)(A), (B), (D) Only

Which of the following sections do not deal with internet/cyber/computer crime ?

(A) Section 50A of Indian Copyright Act

(B) Section 354 D of IPC

(C) Section 111 of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita

(D) Section 66F of Information Technology Act

(E) Section 11A of Patent Act

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)(C) and (E) Only
2. (b)(A) and (B) Only
3. (c)(C) and (D) Only
4. (d)(A) and (E) Only✓

Which of the following are true for adjudicating officers under the Information Technology Act, 2000?

(A) Has the powers of Civil Court which are conferred on the Appellate Tribunal

(B) All proceedings before it deemed to be judicial proceedings U

(C) Deemed to be a Civil Court for purpose of order XXI of CPC, 1908

(D) Deemed to be a Civil Court for the purpose of Sections 340 and 341 of Crpc, 1973

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. (a)(A), (B), (C) Only✓
2. (b)(C), (D) Only
3. (c)(A), (C) Only
4. (d)(B), (C), (D) Only

The Central Government is empowered to appoint which agency under Section 70B of the Information Technology Act, 2000?

1. (a)Indian Electronic Emergency Response Team
2. (b)Indian Digital Security Response Team
3. (c)National Cyber Security Response Team
4. (d)Indian Computer Emergency Response Team✓

Which one of the following is an exemption from direct or indirect liability of Internet Service Providers (ISP) and other intermediaries?

1. (a)Digital Media Copyright Act
2. (b)Digital Millennium Copyright Act✓
3. (c)Digital Medium Copyright Act
4. (d)Digital Marketing Copyright Act