Unit VIII · UGC NET Law PYQEnvironment and Human Rights Law

299 previous year questions, arranged topic by topic. The correct option is marked in green.

Topic 1Meaning and concept of 'environment' and 'environmental pollution'

7 questions · Open this topic on its own page

2012

The term "environment" under Section 2(a) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 means

  1. (a)Air, Water and Land only
  2. (b)Water, Air, Land and the interrelationship between water, air and land and human beings, other living creatures, plants, micro organism and property
  3. (c)Water, Air land and the interrelationship between water, air and land and human beings, other living creatures, plants, micro organism and property✓
  4. (d)None of the above
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : The Environment Protection Act, 1986 (effective from 11/11/1986) defines 'environment' under Section 2(a). According to this, environment includes water, air and land and the interrelationship which exists among and between water, air and land, and human beings, other living creatures, plants, micro-organisms and property.

2013

The increased noise level can cause loss of hearing and irreversible changes in nervous system. Mention the Safe Noise Level fixed by the World Health Organization.

  1. (a)80 decibels
  2. (b)90 decibels
  3. (c)60 decibels
  4. (d)45 decibels✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : The safe noise level fixed by the World Health Organization is 45 decibels. Decibel is the unit of intensity of sound.

2014

A ceremonial pollution is an act relating to unclean worship and is known as the offence of......

  1. (a)Insult to religion
  2. (b)Defilement✓
  3. (c)Anti secularism
  4. (d)Religious hatredness
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : An act relating to ceremonial pollution worship is called the offence of defilement.

2014

The definition of 'environmental pollution' under the Environment (Protection Act) is:

  1. (a)Any pollution of air, water and soil
  2. (b)The presence of any solid, liquid or gaseous substance in the environment that causes injuries to man
  3. (c)The presence in the evironment of any environmental pollutant✓
  4. (d)Any pollution in Land, Sea and Air
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : Section 2(c) of the Environment Protection Act 1986 defines environmental pollution. Environmental pollution means a situation of any environmental pollution in the environment, the scope of environmental pollution will be determined in the context of environmental pollution.

2014

Under the Environment (Protection) Act, the term 'environment' does not include:

  1. (a)Water, air and land
  2. (b)Inter-relationship which exists between water, air and land, and human beings
  3. (c)Inter-relationship which exists between water, air and land, and plants
  4. (d)Environment of work place✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : Under the Environment Protection Act, the word environment does not include 'environment of work place'.

Dec 2021/June 2022 · Q39

Greenhouse effect means

  1. (a)Increase in atmospheric temperature due to the concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere✓
  2. (b)Grwoing vegetables and flowers in increased temperature
  3. (c)Growing food crops in glass houses
  4. (d)Photosynthesis in plants grown in sunlight received in the glass house
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) Increase in atmospheric temperature due to the concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere

Dec 2021/June 2022 · Q76

The word "Environment" has been defined under which of the section of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?

  1. (a)Section 2 (a)✓
  2. (b)Section 2 (e)
  3. (c)Section 2
  4. (d)2 (d) Section 2 (b)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) Section 2 (a)

Topic 2International environmental law and UN Conferences

25 questions · Open this topic on its own page

2012

The concept of sustainable development contains which of the following essentials?

  1. (a)The precautionary principle
  2. (b)The polluter pays principle
  3. (c)The doctrine of public trust
  4. (d)All above✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : Sustainable development is development that meets the needs of the present generation without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. The concept of sustainable development includes the following essential elements:

(a) Precautionary principle

(b) Polluter pays principle

(c) Doctrine of public trust

2013

The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 and the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, were passed by the Parliament under:

  1. (a)Article 252 of the Constitution of India
  2. (b)Article 253 of the Constitution of India✓
  3. (c)Article 250 of the Constitution of India
  4. (d)None of the above
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : Under Article 253 of the Indian Constitution, the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act 1981 and the Environment Protection Act 1986 were passed to give effect to international agreements.

2013

The United Nations proclaimed which of the following day as the "International Drinking Water Supply and Sanitation Decade"?

  1. (a)10th Nov. 1980✓
  2. (b)12th Sept. 1980
  3. (c)10th Nov. 1990
  4. (d)12th Sept. 1990
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : On 10 November 1980, the United Nations proclaimed it as the International Drinking Water Supply and Sanitation Decade.

2013

On which date & place the Earth Summit was held at?

  1. (a)6th June 1997 at Geneva
  2. (b)20th June 1997 at London
  3. (c)21st June 1992 at Rio✓
  4. (d)27th June 1992 at Rio
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : The Earth Summit was held on 21 June 1992 at Rio de Janeiro, Brazil. Its purpose was to save the earth which is getting polluted due to pollution in the environment.

"In case of violation of Article 21 by disturbing the environment, the court could award damages not only for the restoration of the ecological balance but also for the victim who have suffered due to that disturbance."

2016

Which one of the conference is regarded as "Water Shed" in the field of Environment that enables the international community and institutions to work without being bothered by the principle of State Sovereignty?

  1. (a)Stockholm Conference✓
  2. (b)Bali Conference
  3. (c)Copenhagen Conference
  4. (d)RIO Conference
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : The United Nations Stockholm Conference on Human Environment was held from 5 June 1972 to 16 June 1972. This conference is considered very important in the field of environment, which enables international community and institutions to work without caring about the principle of sovereignty of the state. In this conference, 119 countries accepted the principle of "One Earth" for the first time.

Bali Conference - From 3-14 December 2007, a global conference on climate change was organized on the Bali island of Indonesia under the auspices of the United Nations. The objective of this conference was to make a worldwide agreement on the matter of cutting emissions of green house gases.

Copenhagen Conference - From 7-8 December 2009, the United Nations Conference on Climate Change was held in Copenhagen, the capital of Denmark. In the prepared agreement letter, all the countries were urged to declare the target of cutting their carbon by the end of January 2010.

Rio Conference - In 1992, 182 countries of the world organized the Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil. It is also called United Nations Conference on Environment and Development. In this conference, Agenda 21 was presented and UNFCCC was adopted.

UNFCCC = United Nations conference on Environment and Development.

Agenda-21 is a comprehensive action plan for sustainable development.

2017

One of the following International Convention is not related to wild life conservation. Give the correct answer:

  1. (a)Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora
  2. (b)Convention on Environmental Impact Assessment in Transboundary Context✓
  3. (c)Convention on Migratory Species of Wild Animals
  4. (d)Convention on Internation Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : Out of the above options, the Convention on Environmental Impact Assessment in Transboundary Context is not related to wild life conservation.

2017

The Montreal Protocol is related to

  1. (a)Transboundary Air pollution
  2. (b)Ozone Layer✓
  3. (c)Climate change
  4. (d)hazardous waste
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : The Montreal Protocol is related to the Ozone Layer. It was signed on 16 September 1987 and came into force on 26 August 1989. This protocol is for the protection of the ozone layer. Its first meeting was held in Helsinki.

2017

Which one of the following principle is associated with "Trial Smelter" case?

  1. (a)Principle of sustainable development
  2. (b)No state has a right to use or permit the use of its territory so as to cause injury by fumes in the territory of another✓
  3. (c)Redemption of the damaged environment is a part of the process of sustainable development
  4. (d)Placing a duty on the State to hold environmental resources in trust for the benefit of public
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : In the Trail-Smelter case, this principle was propounded that no nation has the right to use its territory in such a way or to permit its use, that it harms the territory of another by smoke.

2018

Bonn Convention is associated with:

  1. (a)Convention on International Trade in Endangered species
  2. (b)International Whaling Convention
  3. (c)Convention on Migratory species✓
  4. (d)Convention on Nature and Natural Resources
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : "Bonn Convention" is a conference based on the conservation of migratory species of wild animals which is an inter-governmental organization. Its headquarter is in Bonn, Germany. It was established in 1979 and its enforcement took place on 1 November 1983.

2019

How many core principles are laid down in United Nations Declaration of Permanent Sovereignty over Natural Resources?

  1. (a)Five core principles
  2. (b)Six core principles
  3. (c)Seven core principles
  4. (d)Eight core principles✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : The General Assembly of the United Nations passed this declaration by resolution. On 14 December 1962, this declaration was passed by 87 votes. It contains eight core principles in total.

June 2020 · Q7

The legally binding limit to carbon emission was laid down in

  1. (a)Kyoto Protocol on Global Warming, 1997✓
  2. (b)Copenhagen Summit on Climate Change, 2009
  3. (c)Durban Conference on Climate Change, 2009
  4. (d)Lima Conference on Climate Change
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) Kyoto Protocol on Global Warming, 1997

June 2020 · Q19Sequence / order

Arrange the initiatives on climate change in chronological order

(A) Durban conference on climate change

(B) Montreal protocol on climate change

(C) Vienna convention on climate change

(D) Copenhagen summit on climate chnage

(E) Kyoto protocol on climate change

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. (a)(A), (B), (C), (D), (E)
  2. (b)(B), (C), (D), (E), (A)
  3. (c)(A), (D), (C), (B), (E)
  4. (d)(C), (B), (E), (D), (A)✓
Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) (C), (B), (E), (D), (A)

June 2020 · Q86

The Commission on Sustainable Development was estabilished in which year?

  1. (a)1972
  2. (b)1982
  3. (c)1992✓
  4. (d)2002
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) 1992

Dec 2020/June 2021 · Q35

The preamble to both Environment (Protection) Act and Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act were passed to implement the decision reached in one of the following

  1. (a)San Francisco Conference, 1945 , 1945
  2. (b)United nations Conference on Environment and Development, 1992
  3. (c)United Nations Conference on the Human Environment, 1972✓
  4. (d)United Nations Conference on Environment, 1982
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) United Nations Conference on the Human Environment, 1972

Dec 2020/June 2021 · Q58Sequence / order

Arrange the following in chronological order

(1) United Nation Conference on the Human Environment

(2) United Nation Conference on Sustainable Development

(3) United Nations Conference on Environment and Development

(4) World Commission on Environment and Development

(5) United Nations Sustainable Development

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. (a)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5)
  2. (b)(2), (1), (4), (3), (5)
  3. (c)(1), (4), (3), (2), (5)✓
  4. (d)(5), (4), (2), (3), (1)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) (1), (4), (3), (2), (5)

Dec 2021/June 2022 · Q11Match the lists

Match List–I with List-II

I -II

List-I/I List-II

A. Bonn Convention I. Protection of the Ozone layer

B. Vienna Convention II. Control of Trans boundary movements of hazardous wastes and their disposal

C. Basel convention III. Conservation of migratory species of wild animals

D. Rotterdam Convention IV. Prior informed consent procedure for certain hazarduous chemicals and pesticides in international trade

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. (a)A - II, B – I, C - IV, D - III
  2. (b)A - III, B - I, C- II, D - IV✓
  3. (c)A - IV, B - II, C- I, D - III
  4. (d)A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) A - III, B - I, C- II, D - IV

Dec 2021/June 2022 · Q30Sequence / order

Arrange the following Protocols/Declarations in the correct chronological sequence

(A) Kyoto Protocol

(B) Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety

(C) Montreal Protocol

(D) Nagoya Protocol

(E) Rio Declaration on Environment and Development

Choose the correct answer from the option given below

  1. (a)E, A, B, C, D
  2. (b)E, B, C, D, A
  3. (c)E, C, A, B, D
  4. (d)E, D, C, B, A
Answer & explanation

Answer: no single key (NTA dropped this question or changed its answer key)

Dec 2021/June 2022 · Q63

Read the following principles of the Rio Declaration on Environment and Development (1992) and select the correct answer from the given options

(A) Principle 1: Human beings are at the centre of concerns for sustainable development

(B) Principle 16 : In order to protect the environment, the precautionary approach shall be widely applied by states according to their capabilities

(C) Principle 14 : Environmental impact Assessment shall be undertaken for proposed activities that are likely to have a significant adverse impact on the environment

(D) Principle 20 : Women have a vital role in environmental management and development

(E) Principle 24 : Peace, development and environmental protection are interdependent and indivisible

Choose the correct answer from the option given below

  1. (a)A and D only✓
  2. (b)B and C only
  3. (c)C and E only
  4. (d)B and E only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) A and D only

Dec 2021/June 2022 · Q67Match the lists

Match List-I with List -II

I -II

List-I/I List-II

A. Ramsar Convention I. 1992

B. Convention on Biological Diversity

C. Minamata Convention III. 1991

D. The United Nations Convention to combat Desertification/s IV. 2013

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. (a)A - III, B – II, C - IV, D - I
  2. (b)A - IV, B - II, C- III, D - I
  3. (c)A - III, B - I, C- IV, D - II
  4. (d)A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III
Answer & explanation

Answer: no single key (NTA dropped this question or changed its answer key)

Dec 2021/June 2022 · Q90

Select the right answer from the given options

(A) COP 26 : Glasgow Climate Change Conference

(B) COP 25 : Lima Climate Change Conference

(C) COP 24 : Marrakesh Climate Change Conferecne

(D) COP 22 : Katowice Climate Change Conference

(E) COP 21 : Paris Climate Change Conference

Choose the correct answer from the option given below

  1. (a)A, and E only✓
  2. (b)B and C only
  3. (c)B and D only
  4. (d)C and D only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) A, and E only

June 2023 · Q72

Under which of the following principles is the "Polluter Pays Principle" is envisaged?

“o hes]pe ?

  1. (a)Principle 15, Earth Summit, 1992 15 , 1992
  2. (b)Principle 1 & 2, Stockholm Declaration, 1972 1 2, , 1972
  3. (c)Principle 16, Rio Declaration, 1992 16, , 1992✓
  4. (d)Principle 5, Rio Declaration, 1992 5 , 1992
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) Principle 16, Rio Declaration, 1992 16, , 1992

December 2023 · Q56Sequence / order

Arrange the following UN Conventions in their chronological order

(A) UN Convention on Biological Diversity

(B) UN Convention on Climate Change

(C) UN Convention Against Transnational Crimes

(D) UN Convention on the Rights of the Child

(E) UN Convention onon Jurisdictional Immunities of States and their property

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. (a)(B), (C), (D), (E), (A)
  2. (b)(A), (D), (E), (C), (B)
  3. (c)(D), (B), (C), (E), (A)
  4. (d)(A), (D), (C), (B), (E)
Answer & explanation

Answer: no single key (NTA dropped this question or changed its answer key)

December 2024 · Q120Match the lists

Match List - I with List - II

List -I (Conference/Treaty/Convention/Protocol)

List - II (Year)

(A) UN Conference on Environment and Development 1987

(B) Kyoto Conference on Global Warming (II) 1992

(C) Paris Agreement (пп) 1997

(D) Montreal Protocol (IV) 2015

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. (a)(A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(1)✓
  2. (b)(A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(1)
  3. (c)(A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
  4. (d)(A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(1)

June 2026 · Q100

The UN Conference on Human Environment held at Stockholm in 1972 incorporates "Assimilative Capacity Principle" under which of the following Principle?

  1. (a)Principle 6✓
  2. (b)Principle 9
  3. (c)Principle 13
  4. (d)Principle 14
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) Principle 6

Explanation: Principle 6 of the landmark 1972 Stockholm Declaration on the Human Environment incorporates the Assimilative Capacity Principle, stating:

"The discharge of toxic substances or of other substances and the release of heat, in such quantities or concentrations as to exceed the capacity of the environment to render them harmless, must be halted in order to ensure that serious or irreversible damage is not inflicted upon ecosystems."

June 2026 · Q107

"The women have a vital role in environment management and development and full participation of women is essential to active sustainable development" was laid down in which one of the following Principle of Rio Declaration, 1992?

  1. (a)Principle 20✓
  2. (b)Principle 21
  3. (c)Principle 23
  4. (d)Principle 24
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) Principle 20

Explanation: Principle 20 of the Rio Declaration on Environment and Development (1992) explicitly addresses the role of women:

"Women have a vital role in environmental management and development. Their full participation is therefore essential to achieve sustainable development."

• Principle 21: Focuses on the creativity, ideals, and courage of the youth of the world to forge a global partnership.

• Principle 23: Focuses on protecting the environment and natural resources of people under oppression, domination, and occupation.

• Principle 24: States that warfare is inherently destructive of sustainable development.

Topic 3Constitutional and legal framework for protection of environment in India

103 questions · Open this topic on its own page

2012

Find the correct answer:

The principle of intergenerational equity envisages:

  1. (a)Conservation of options
  2. (b)Conservation of quality
  3. (c)Conservation of access
  4. (d)All the above✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : The principle of intergenerational equity states that every member of the present generation should collectively use the earth and ensure that future generations also have the same opportunity so that civilization is maintained. This principle considers the following:

(1) Conservation of options

(2) Conservation of quality

(3) Conservation of access

2012

Find the correct answer:

The Supreme Court allowed compensation of Rs. 23.84 lakhs and later allowed additional compensation of Rs. 47 lakhs to the farmers whose crops got damaged, being irrigated by subsoil water drawn from a stream which was polluted from untreated effluents of 22 industries. It was decided in the case of

  1. (a)Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v. Union of India
  2. (b)Indian Council for Environment Action v. Union of India✓
  3. (c)S. Jagannath v. Union of India
  4. (d)Narmada Bachao Andolan v. Union of India
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : In the case of Indian Council for Environment Action v. Union of India, 1996 wy 281, the Supreme Court allowed compensation of Rs. 23.84 lakhs and later allowed additional compensation of Rs. 47 lakhs to the farmers. In this case, the water, crops, surroundings of villages of Udaypur district were affected by dangerous gases and chemicals from chemical factories nearby and about 720 tons of debris had spread around.

2012Assertion–Reason

Assertion (A): The Supreme Court in Banwasi Seva Ashram v. State of Uttar Pradesh, permitted the government agency to acquire the forest land, ousting certain tribal dwellers to implement a power project only after they agreed to provide certain facilities approved by the Court.

Reason (R): Because the governmental action had an environmental impact that threatened to dislocate poor forest dwellers and disrupt their life-style infringing their fundamental right to life, which include the right to livelihood.

Code:

  1. (a)(A) is true, but (R) is false
  2. (b)(A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
  3. (c)(A) is false, but (R) is true
  4. (d)(A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : In the case of Banwasi Seva Ashram v. U.P. State, AIR 1987 S.C., the above statement was held, hence both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

2012

The Supreme Court observed that noise pollution cannot be tolerated, even if such noise was a direct result of and was connected with religious activities in the case of

  1. (a)A.P. Pollution Control Board v. Prof. M.V. Naidu
  2. (b)Church of God (Full Gospel) in India v. KKR Majestic Colony Welfare Association✓
  3. (c)K.M. Chinappa v. Union of India
  4. (d)Narmada Bachao Andolan v. Union of India
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : In the case of Church of God (Full Gospel) in India v. K.K.R. M. Welfare Association, AIR, 2000 S.C., the Supreme Court held that while exercising the right to religious freedom under Articles 25 and 26, no person has the right to cause noise pollution or disturb the peace of other persons. Playing musical instruments to worship is not essential for any religion to follow.

2012Assertion–Reason

Assertion (A): Nobody can claim a fundamental right to create noise pollution by amplifying the sound of his speech with the help of loudspeaker.

Reason (R): While one has a right to speech, others have a right to listen or decline to listen. Anyone who wishes to live in peace, comfort and quiet within his house has a fundamental right to prevent the noise as pollutantion reaching him.

Code:

  1. (a)(A) is true, but (R) is false
  2. (b)(A) is false, but (R) is true
  3. (c)(A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
  4. (d)(A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : In the case of In Re Noise Pollution AIR 2005 S.C. 3036, the Supreme Court held that under Article 21, every person has the right to live in a noise pollution free environment, which cannot be infringed by exercising the right granted under Article 19-1(a). No person has the right to claim the right to speech by using loudspeaker and loud amplifier, and one cannot be compelled to listen to any person.

2012

In which no the following cases it was held that there is no reason to compel non-smoken to be helpless victims of air pollution?

  1. (a)Samatntha v. State of A.P.
  2. (b)M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
  3. (c)Murali Deora v. Union of India✓
  4. (d)Sheela Barse v. Union of India
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : In the case of Murli S. Deora v. Union of India, AIR 2002 S.C., the Supreme Court directed all states and union territories to ban smoking in public places, including transport facilities such as railways, health and educational institutions, libraries, court buildings, government offices etc. There is no reason to compel non-smokers to be helpless victims of air pollution.

2012

Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding forests and wildlife is

  1. (a)A fundamental right
  2. (b)One of the Directive Principles of State Policy
  3. (c)One of the Fundamental Duties
  4. (d)Both one of the Directive Principles of State Policy and one of the Fundamental Duties✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding forests and wildlife is both a Directive Principle of State Policy and a Fundamental Duty. Article 48-A of Part IV expects that the State shall endeavor to protect and improve the environment and safeguard the forests and wildlife of the country. Article 51-A clause (g) of Part IV-A provides that it shall be the duty of every citizen of India to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures.

2012

In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court applied the doctrine of public trust that the State as a trustee of all natural resources is under a legal duty to protect the natural resources. These natural resources are meant for public use and cannot be converted into private ownership?

  1. (a)M.C. Mehta v. Kamalnath and others✓
  2. (b)M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (Ganga Water Pollution case)
  3. (c)M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (Replacing diesel vehicles by CNG vehicles)
  4. (d)Church of God (Full Gospel) in India v. KKR Majestic Colony Welfare Association
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : In the case of M.C. Mehta v. Kamalnath and others, the Supreme Court applied the doctrine of public trust. The Court held that the State as a trustee of all natural resources has a legal duty to protect the natural resources. These natural resources are meant for public use and cannot be converted into private ownership.

2012

In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court discussed the development of the precautionary principle?

  1. (a)A.P. Pollution Control Board v. M.V.Nayudu✓
  2. (b)Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra v. State of U.P.
  3. (c)M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (Ganga Water Pollution case)
  4. (d)Olga Tellis (1986) case
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : In the case of A.P. Pollution Control Board v. M.V. Nayudu, the Supreme Court propounded the precautionary principle.

2012Assertion–Reason

Assertion (A): The right to clean drinking water and right to free air to breath are attributes of the right to life.

Reason (R): Because they are the basic elements which sustain life.

Code:

  1. (a)(A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)✓
  2. (b)(A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
  3. (c)(A) is true, but (R) is false
  4. (d)(A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : Subhash Kumar v. State of Bihar, AIR 1991 Su. Court - The right to clean drinking water and the right to free air to breathe are attributes of the right to life because they are the basic elements which sustain life. Therefore, both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

2012

In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court observed that, 'When there is a state of uncertainty due to the lac of data or material about the extent of damage or pollution likely to be caused, then in order to maintain the ecological balance, the burden of proof that the said balance will be maintained must necessarily be on the industry or the unit which is likely to cause pollution?

  1. (a)M.C. Mehta. Union of India
  2. (b)Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation
  3. (c)Taj Trapezium case
  4. (d)None of the above✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (1991) 2 SCC 137 - The Court directed the Delhi administration to strictly enforce the Central Motor Vehicles Act, 1988. Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation AIR 1986 SC 180 - The right to livelihood is a fundamental right under Article 21. In the Taj Trapezium case, the Court ordered the removal of polluting industries reaching the Taj Mahal located in Agra.

2012

In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court directed closing down and demolition of shrimp industries in coastal regulation zone and implement the "precautionary principle" and "the polluter pays principle and held them liable for payment of compensation for reversing the ecology and compensate the individual for loss suffered?

  1. (a)S. Jagannath v. Union of India✓
  2. (b)Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v. Union of India
  3. (c)M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
  4. (d)Church of God (Full Gospels) in India v. KKR Majestic Colony Welfare Association
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : In the case of S. Jagannath v. Union of India A.I.R. 1997 SC 811, the Supreme Court directed closing down or demolition of shrimp industries in coastal regulation zone and ordered to implement the "precautionary principle" and "polluter pays principle" and directed them to pay compensation for reversing the ecology.

2012

In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court upheld the governmental direction is close down the limestone mining operations and quarrying permanently, holding it the duty of the lessee to protest and safeguard the right of the people to live in a healthy environment with minimal disturbance of ecological balance?

  1. (a)All India Council for Enviro Legal Action v. Union of India
  2. (b)Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra v. State of Uttar Pradesh✓
  3. (c)Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v. Union of India
  4. (d)M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : In the case of Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra Dehradun v. State of Uttar Pradesh (1985) 2 S.C.C. 431, the public interest litigation by the Supreme Court ordered the limestone quarrying activity to be permanently closed after inspection by a committee, as it was found to be polluting the environment.

2013

Which of the following Judges of Supreme Court is famously known as the 'Green Judge'?

  1. (a)Justice V.R. Krishna Iyyar
  2. (b)Justice P.N. Bhagwati
  3. (c)Justice Kuldip Singh✓
  4. (d)Justice B.N. Kirpal
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : Justice Kuldip Singh, a judge of the Supreme Court of India, is famously known as the "Green Judge".

2013

Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India have been mostly used by the Supreme Court to protect environment

  1. (a)Article 32
  2. (b)Article 21
  3. (c)Both Article 21 and 32✓
  4. (d)None of the above
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : The Supreme Court has used Articles 21 and 32 to protect the environment. Article 21 provides for the protection of life and personal liberty and Article 32 provides power to enforce fundamental rights. The environment is essential for life. M.C. Mehta and Murli S. Deora are leading cases related to this.

2013

What is the period of notice required to be served upon the Central Government for filing a criminal complaint by any person, under the provisions of Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?

  1. (a)Not less than 30 days
  2. (b)Not less than 60 days✓
  3. (c)Not less than 90 days
  4. (d)None of the above
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : Under the Environment Protection Act 1986, it is necessary to give 60 days prior notice to the Central Government before filing a criminal complaint by any person. Section 80 of the Civil Procedure Code is related to the principle of notice. According to this Section, before filing any case against the Central or State Government, it is mandatory to give 2 months prior notice. In urgent matters, notice under Section 80 is not necessary.

2013

Which one of the following cases is considered as "High Water-mark case in Forest Protection" decided by the Supreme Court?

  1. (a)Salebhai Mulla Mohammad Ali v. State of Gujrat
  2. (b)T.N. Godavarman Tirumulkpad v. Union of India✓
  3. (c)Narmada Bachao Andolan v. Union of India
  4. (d)Samatha v. State of Andhra Pradesh
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : T.N. Godavarman Tirumulkpad v. Union of India (1995) is considered as the "high water-mark" decision rendered by the Supreme Court in the context of forest protection.

2013

The Parliament enacted the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 for the control of water pollution

  1. (a)On the request from States✓
  2. (b)Of his own
  3. (c)On the direction of United Nations
  4. (d)On the direction of Supreme Court
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : The Parliament enacted the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act 1974 for the control of water pollution on the request of the States.

2013

Under which of the following Article of the Constitution of India, the provisions regarding duty of the State "to protect and improvement of environment and safeguard the forest and wildlife", exist?

  1. (a)Article 51A(g)
  2. (b)Article 47
  3. (c)Article 48-A✓
  4. (d)None of above
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : According to Article 48-A of the Indian Constitution, the State shall endeavor to protect and improve the environment and safeguard the forests and wildlife of the country. Article 48-A was added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment, which came into effect on 3 January 1977. Under Clause (g) of Article 51A, the protection of environment etc. is a fundamental duty of all.

2013

The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 shall have precedence over other laws and therefore, the provisions of the Act shall have effect despite the inconsistency with the provisions of any other enactment. However it is subject to

  1. (a)The Mines Act, 1952
  2. (b)Atomic Energy Act, 1962✓
  3. (c)The Factories Act, 1948
  4. (d)None of the above
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : Section 52 of the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act 1981 makes it have overriding effect over other laws, however this Act is subject to the Atomic Energy Act 1962.

2013

Which of the following is popularly known as "Forest Conservation Case"?

  1. (a)Environment Awareness Forum v. State of J&K, (1999) 1 SCC 210
  2. (b)T.N. Godavarman Thirumulk Pad v. Union of India, (1997) 2 SCC 267✓
  3. (c)M.C. Metha v. Union of India, (1992) 1 SCC 358
  4. (d)Tata Engineering & Locomotive Co. Ltd. v. State of Bihar, (2000) 5 SCC 346
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : T.S. Godavarman Tirumulk Pad v. Union of India 1997 S.C. case is known as the 'Forest Conservation Case'.

2013

Taj Trapezium case is between

  1. (a)indian Council for Enoviro- Legal Action v. Union of India, (1996) 3 SCC 212
  2. (b)Ramji Patel v. Nagarik Upbhokta Marg Darshak Manch, (2000) 3 SCC 29
  3. (c)Vineet Kumar Mathur v. Union of India, (1996) 7 SCC 714
  4. (d)M.C. Metha v. Union of India (1997) 2 SCC 353✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : Taj Trapezium case is related to M.C. Mehta v. Union of India 1997 S.C. This case is related to the harmful effects of air pollution on the Taj Mahal of Agra.

2013

The Central or State Board under the Water Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 is required to meet at least

  1. (a)every one month✓
  2. (b)Every two months
  3. (c)Every three months
  4. (d)Every six months
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : Under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act 1974, the Central or State Board is required to meet at least every one month.

2013

The "precautionary principle" and the "polluter pays principle" are part of the Environmental Law of our country.

  1. (a)True✓
  2. (b)False
  3. (c)Partly true and partly false
  4. (d)None
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : The precautionary principle and the polluter pays principle are part of the environmental law of our country. Constitutional provisions related to environmental protection have been made under Article 48-A and Article 51-A(g).

2013

In which case the Supreme Court of India has made above observations?

  1. (a)M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1997 SC 734
  2. (b)M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath, (1997) 1 SCC 388
  3. (c)M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath, AIR 2000 SC 1997
  4. (d)M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath, 2000 (2) SCALE 654✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : In the case of M.C. Mehta v. Kamalnath (2000), the Supreme Court said that on damaging the environment, Article 21 of the Constitution is violated, then the court can not only order compensation for the restoration of ecology but the victim can also be compensated for the damage.

2013

In which of the following case the constitutionality, legal validity, propriety and fairness of the settlement of the claims of the victims in a mass Tort action relating to Bhopal Gas Leak Disaster has been challenged in Supreme Court of India?

  1. (a)Union Carbide Corp. v. Union of India, AIR 1990, SC 273
  2. (b)M.C. Mehta vs. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC 1086
  3. (c)Union Corbide Corp. v. Union of India, AIR 1992 SC 248✓
  4. (d)Charanlal Sahu v. Union of India, AIR 1990 SC 1480
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : Union Carbide Corporation v. Union of India 1992 case is famous as the Bhopal Gas Disaster. In this case, the constitutionality, legality, propriety and fairness of the settlement of claims of victims in mass tort action was challenged before the Supreme Court. This incident happened in 1984 in which many people were killed.

2013

Under which Article of the Constitution Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 was enacted?

  1. (a)Article 253✓
  2. (b)Article 258
  3. (c)Article 255
  4. (d)Article 254
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : Under Article 253 of the Indian Constitution, the Environment Protection Act 1986 was enacted to give effect to international agreements. This Act has a total of 26 sections and 4 chapters.

2013

The problem of the pollution of river Ganga by the inaction of the municipalities was brought to light in which of the following case?

  1. (a)Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v. Union of India, AIR 1996 SC 1446
  2. (b)A.P. Pollution Control Board v. M.V. Nayudu, AIR 1999 SC 812
  3. (c)S. Jagannath v. Union of India, AIR 1997 SC 811
  4. (d)M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1988 SC 1115✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : In the case of M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (1988), the problem of pollution of river Ganga due to inaction of municipalities was brought to light before the Supreme Court.

2013

Which one of the following cases relates to Sariska Tiger Park?

  1. (a)Tarun Bharat Sangh v. Union of India, AIR 1992 SC 514✓
  2. (b)Consumer Education and Research Society v. Union of India, AIR 2000 SC 975
  3. (c)Pradeep Krishen v. Union of India, AIR 1997 SC 2040
  4. (d)Animal and Environmental Legal Defence Fund case, AIR 1997 SC 1070
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : Tarun Bharat Sangh v. Union of India (1992 S.C.) case is related to Sariska Tiger Park. This park is located in Rajasthan.

2014

One of the following case is popularly known as "Doon Valley case":

  1. (a)Pathumna v. State of Kerala, AIR (1978) 2 SCC
  2. (b)M.C. Metha v. Union of India, AIR (1987) SC
  3. (c)Unni Krishnan v. State of A.P., AIR (1993) 1 SCC
  4. (d)R.L. & E. Kendra v. State of U.P., AIR (1985) SC✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : R.L. and E. Kendra v. State of Uttar Pradesh, A.I.R. (1985) S.C case is famous as the Doon Valley case. The Doon Valley case relates to environment and ecological balance.

2014

The polluter pays principle has been incorporated in

  1. (a)Principle 15 of the Rio Declaratin of Environment and Development
  2. (b)Principle 8 of the Rio Declaration on Environment and Development
  3. (c)Principle 8 of the Rio Declaration on Environment and Development
  4. (d)Principle 16 of the Rio Declaration on Environment and Development✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : The document of the Rio Declaration on Environment and Development with the principle of the polluter pays principle was adopted unanimously on 14 June 1992 in the same form without any change as was drafted in March 1992. This Declaration has 27 principles.

2014

Protection and Improvement of environment and safeguarding forests and wild life is:

  1. (a)One of the Directive Principles of state policy
  2. (b)A fundamental right
  3. (c)Fundamental duty
  4. (d)Both directive principles of state policy and fundamental duties✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : Under Article 48-A and Article 51-A (g) of the Indian Constitution, provisions for protection and improvement of environment and protection of forests and wild life have been made, which are respectively Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties.

Two important Amendments were brought in the year 1976. One with reference to directive principles of state policy making the state responsible to protect and improve the environment and safeguard the forests and wild life of the country. The other under fundamental duties making every citizen to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, revers and wild life and to have compassion for living creatures.

2014

The relevant amendment is

  1. (a)49th Amendment
  2. (b)45th Amendment
  3. (c)43rd Amendment
  4. (d)42nd Amendment✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : The subject given in the present question has been added by the 42nd Amendment Act 1976, Article 48-A and Article 51-(A)(g). Article 48-A provides that - The State shall endeavor to protect the environment of the country and improve and protect the forests and wild life. On the other hand, Article 51-(A)(g) provides that protect the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, conserve them and have compassion for living creatures.

2014

Section 19 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 enables a person to file a complaint in a criminal court after giving a notice to the Pollution Control Board. Once a complaint has been made, the board is bound to make available to the complainant all relevant reports to him on demand. The board may also refuse to disclose on public interest.

Similar provisions are also available under

  1. (a)Section 49 of the Water Act, 1974 and Section 43 of the Air Act, 1981✓
  2. (b)Section 43 of the Water Act, 1974 and Section 49 of the Air Act, 1981
  3. (c)Section 42 of the Water Act, 1974 and Section 46 of the Air Act, 1981
  4. (d)Section 41 of the Water Act, 1974 and Section 42 of the Air Act, 1981
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : Section 19 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 enables a person to file a complaint in a criminal court after giving notice to the Pollution Control Board. Once a complaint has been filed, the Pollution Control Board is bound to make available all relevant reports to the complainant on his demand. The Board may also refuse to disclose any information in public interest. Similar provisions are also available in Section 49 of the Water Act 1974 and Section 43 of the Air Act 1981.

2014

The Supreme Court of India ordered conversion from fuel to CNG on July 28, 1998. It also set up a committee to evaluate the cleanliness of various fuels on April 27, 2001. The name of the committee is

  1. (a)Bhurelal Committee✓
  2. (b)Santhanam Committee
  3. (c)Mallimath Committee
  4. (d)Madanlal Committee
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : The Supreme Court of India on 28 July 1998 ordered to use C.N.G. in place of fuel. This Court set up a committee on 27 April 2001. The name of this committee was 'Bhurelal Committee'.

"The public trust doctrine primarily rests on the principle that certain resources like air, sea, water, and the forests have such a great importance to the people as a whole that it would be wholly injustified to make them a subject of private ownership."

2014

The above Doctrine was discussed in detail in one of the following case:

  1. (a)M.C. Metha v. Kamalnath, 1997 1 SCC✓
  2. (b)Rural litigation and Environment Kendra v. Union of India, AIR 1985 SC
  3. (c)Vellare Citizen's Welfare Forum v. Union of India, 1996 5 SCC
  4. (d)M.C. Metha v. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : In the case of M.C. Mehta v. Kamalnath (1997) S.C., the Supreme Court held that "the doctrine of public trust is primarily based on the principle that certain resources like air, sea, water and forests are very important for the people as a whole. It would be highly unjust to put them in private hands."

2014

The main objective of the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act is:

  1. (a)To provide for the prevention, control and abatement of air pollution✓
  2. (b)To provide for ensuring standards for emission from automobiles
  3. (c)To put restrictions on the establishment of certain industrial plants
  4. (d)To establish air laboratory for air quality standards
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : The Air Pollution Act 1981 (passed on 29 March 1981) has the following objectives:

(1) Making provision for the prevention, control and abatement of air pollution.

(2) Establishment of Central and State Boards.

(3) Conferring powers on such Boards and determination of their functions.

2014Assertion–Reason

Assertion (A): A company was unlawfully polluting streams and rivers by discharging trade effluents which raised pollution level beyond permissible limits.

Reason (R): The court decided that the company could not be held liable under Water Act, 1974.

Codes:

  1. (a)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. (b)Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
  3. (c)(A) is true, but (R) is false✓
  4. (d)(A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : The following are the objectives of the Water Pollution and Control Act 1974:

(1) Establishment of Central and State Boards for prevention and control of water pollution.

(2) Conferring powers and functions to the Board for prevention and control of water pollution.

(3) Establishment of Central and State Boards for prevention and control of water pollution.

(4) Provision of punishment on violation of the provisions of the Act.

Therefore, the company is polluting the rivers by discharging trade effluents, which is punishable under the Act 1974.

2014Sequence / order

Arrange the following cases in the chronological order on the basis of the year in which they have been decided by the Supreme Court on Public Trust doctrine under Environment law. Use the code given below:

1. M.C. Mehta v. KamalNath

2. M.I. Builders Pvt. Ltd. v. Radhey Shyam Sahu

3. Hindlal Tiwari v. Kamala Devi

4. Intellectual Forum, Thirupati v. State of Andhra Pradesh

Codes:

  1. (a)IV, III, I, II
  2. (b)III, II, IV, I
  3. (c)III, I, IV, II
  4. (d)I, II, III, IV✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : Cases determined by the Supreme Court under the public trust doctrine under environmental law in the following order-

1. M.C. Mehta v. Kamalnath (1996) S.C.

2. M.I. Builders Pvt. Ltd. v. Radheyshyam Sahu (1999) S.C.

3. Hindlal Tiwari v. Kamala Devi (2001) S.C.

4. Intellectual Forum, Tirupati v. State of Andhra Pradesh (2006) S.C.

2014Match the lists

Match items in List-1 with items in List-II using codes given below:

List-I

A. Intergenerational Equity

B. Sustainable Development

C. Precautionary Principle

D. Polluter Pays Principle

List-II

1. Earth Summit, 1992, Principle 15

2. Rio Declaration, 1992, Principle 16

3. Stockholm Declaration 1 & 2

4. Rio Declaration, 1992, Principle 3

Codes:

  1. (a)A-iv/4, B-iii/3, C-i/1, D-i/2
  2. (b)A-i/1, B-iii/3, C-ii/2, D-iv/4
  3. (c)A-ii/2, B-iv/4, C-i/1, D-iii/3
  4. (d)A-iii/3, B-iv/4, C-i/1, D-ii/2✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) :

Intergenerational Equity - Earth Summit, 1992, Principle 15

Sustainable Development - Rio Declaration 1992, Principle 16

Precautionary Principle - Stockholm Declaration, 1972, Principle 1 and 2

Polluter Pays Principle - Rio Declaration, 1992, Principle 3

2014

For which special purpose a conditional permit for hunting any wild animal cannot be granted under the Wild Life (Protection) Act?

  1. (a)Preparation of snake venom for manufacturing of life saving drugs
  2. (b)Collection of specimen for zoos and museums
  3. (c)Scientific research
  4. (d)Research in traditional and established Universities✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : Section 2(16) of the Wild Life Protection Act 1972 defines hunting of wild animals. Under this Act, conditional permission for hunting of wild animals for research in traditional and established universities for special purpose cannot be granted.

2014Match the lists

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List-I

A. Power of Central Government to take measures to protect and improve environment

B. Constitution of Central Pollution Control Board

C. Power of Central Government to make rules to regulate Enviornmental Pollution

D. Gaseous or liquid pollutants in the atmosphere injurious to human beings

List-II

1. Section 6 of Environment (Protection) Act

2. Section 3 of Environment (Protection) Act

3. Section 6 of Water(Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act

4. Section 2(a) of the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution)

Code:

  1. (a)A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
  2. (b)A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
  3. (c)A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4✓
  4. (d)A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : Matched list:

Power of Central Government to take measures to protect and improve environment - Section 3 of Environment (Protection) Act

Constitution of Central Pollution Control Board - Section 6 of Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act

Power of Central Government to make rules to regulate environmental pollution - Section 6 of Environment (Protection) Act

Gaseous or liquid pollutants in the atmosphere injurious to human beings - Section 2(a) of the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act

2014Match the lists

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List-I

A. Rylands v. Fletcher

B. Indian Council for Environment Legal Action v. Union of India

C. Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v. Union of India

D. M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath

List-II

1. Principle of public trust for ecological protection

2. Precautionary Principle

3. Principle of Polluter pays

4. Principle of strict liability

Code:

  1. (a)A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1✓
  2. (b)A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
  3. (c)A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
  4. (d)A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : Matched list:

Rylands v. Fletcher - Principle of strict liability

Indian Council for Environment Legal Action v. Union of India - Principle of polluter pays

Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v. Union of India - Precautionary principle

M.C. Mehta v. Kamalnath - Principle of public trust for ecological protection

2014Assertion–Reason

Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using codes given below:

Assertion (A): Polluter pays principle means polluters should internalise the costs of their pollution, control it at its source, and pay for its effects, including remedial or cleanup costs, rather than forcing other states or future generations to bear such costs.

Reason (R): Villore citizen's welfare forum v. Union of India decided so.

Codes:

  1. (a)(A) is right but (R) is wrong
  2. (b)Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is the correct reason of (A)✓
  3. (c)Both (A) and (R) are wrong
  4. (d)Both (A) and (R) are right but (R) is not the correct reason of (A)
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

2014Match the lists

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List-I

A. Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra, Dehradun v. State of Uttar Pradesh

B. Mamta v. State of Andhra Pradesh

C. K.V. Shanmugam v. State of Tamil Nadu

D. State of Himachal Pradesh v. Ganesh Wood Products

List-II

1. Grant of a lease of land or its renewal without the approval of the Central Government is void

2. Balancing environmental and ecological integrity against industrial demands on forest resources

3. Renewal of lease on forest land is not a vested right

4. Forest-based industries do not have an absolute or an unrestricted right

Code:

  1. (a)A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
  2. (b)A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3✓
  3. (c)A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
  4. (d)A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : Matched list:

Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra Dehradun v. State of Uttar Pradesh - Grant of lease of land or its renewal without the approval of Central Government is void

Mamta v. State of Andhra Pradesh - Forest based industries do not have unrestricted or absolute right to operate their units in areas where forest resources are scarce

K.V. Shanmugam v. State of Tamil Nadu - Balance between environmental and ecological ethics against industrial demands on forest resources

State of Himachal Pradesh v. Ganesh Wood Products - Renewal of lease on forest land is not a vested right

2014Assertion–Reason

Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using codes given below:

Assertion (A): In the exercise of his rights and freedoms, no one shall be subjected only for such limitations as are determined by law solely for the purpose of securing due recognition and respect for the rights and freedoms of others, and of meeting the just requirements of morality, public order, and the general welfare in a democratic society.

Reason (R): Because Article 29(2) of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights states so.

Codes:

  1. (a)Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is correct reason of (A)
  2. (b)(A) is riight, but (R) is wrong
  3. (c)(A) is wrong, but (R) is right
  4. (d)Both (A) and (R) are wrong✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are wrong. Article 29 of the Indian Constitution provides for protection of interests of minorities. Restrictions can be imposed on someone's rights and freedom by law. According to Article 29(2), no citizen shall be denied admission to any educational institution maintained by the State or receiving aid out of State funds on grounds only of religion, race, caste, language.

2014

"Where directive principles have found statutory expression in do's and dont's the court will not sit idle and allow government to become a statutory mockery for protection of environment. The law will relentlessly be enforced and the plea of poor finance will be poor alibi when people in misery cry for justice. The above was observed in Municipal Council of Ratlan v. Vardhichand by:

  1. (a)Justice Chinnappa Reddy
  2. (b)Justice V.R. Krishna Iyyer✓
  3. (c)Justice P.N. Bhagavati
  4. (d)Justice Ranaganath Misra
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : In the case of Municipal Council of Ratlam v. Vardhichand (AIR) 1980 SC 1622, Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer had made the above remarks.

2014

Protection and improvement of Environment and safeguarding forest and wild life is:

  1. (a)A Fundamental Right
  2. (b)One of the Directive Principles of State Policy
  3. (c)One of the Fundamental Duties
  4. (d)Both Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duty✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : According to Article 48A and Article 51A (g) of the Indian Constitution, protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forest and wild life are both Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties.

2014

In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court directed closing down and demolition of shrimp Industries in coastal regulation zone and implement the "Precautionary principle" and' the polluter pays principle' and held them liable for payment of compensation for eversing the ecology and compensate the individual for loss suffered?

  1. (a)M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
  2. (b)S. Jajganath v. Union of India✓
  3. (c)Church of God (Full Gosels) in india v. K.K.R. majestic Colony Welfare Association
  4. (d)Vellore' Citizen's Welfare Forum v. Union of India
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : In S. Jagannath v. Union of India (AIR 1997 SC 811), the Supreme Court had directed to close down and demolish the shrimp industries in the coastal regulation zone and apply the "precautionary principle" and "polluter pays principle". Justice Kuldip Singh while pronouncing the judgment said that the beauty and recreational utility of the natural beauty provided to man by the sea coast and the sea should be maintained.

2014Assertion–Reason

Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the code given below:

Assertion (A): The right to clean drinking water and right to pollution free air to breath are attributes of "Right to Life"

Reason (R): Because they are the basic elements, which sustain life.

Codes:

  1. (a)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)✓
  2. (b)Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  3. (c)(A) is true, but (R) is false
  4. (d)(A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : In the case of Subhash Kumar v. State of Bihar (1991) s.c., it was held that the right to use pollution free water and air is included in the right to life granted under Article 21. Because it is the basic element of livelihood.

2014

In which of the following cases the Supreme Court applied the doctrine of public trust that the state as trustee of all natural resources is under a legal duty to protect the natural resources. These natural resources are meant for public use and cannot be converted into private ownership?

  1. (a)M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (Ganga Water Pollution Case)
  2. (b)M.C. Mehta v. Kamalnath and others✓
  3. (c)M.C. Mehata v. Union of India (Replacing diesel vehicles by CNG Vehicles)
  4. (d)Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra v State of U.P.
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : In M.C. Mehta v. Kamalnath and others (1988) S.C., the Supreme Court said that the doctrine of public trust is a legal duty of the state to protect all the natural resources, being the trustee of all the natural resources of the state.

2014

Which one of the following is the main objective of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 as amended upto 2003

  1. (a)To check on poaching and illegal trade in domestic and wild animals
  2. (b)To check on poaching and on illegal trade in ivory✓
  3. (c)To check on poaching and legal trade in dog
  4. (d)To check on hunting and legal trade in elephant
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 was passed mainly for the protection of wild animals, birds and plants and to make incidental and ancillary provisions related thereto.

2016

The Supreme Court while reiterating the significance of "Intergenerational Equity" observed that "the present generation has no right to deplete all the existing Forest and leave nothing for the next and future generation" in one of the following case:

  1. (a)S. Jaganath v. Union of India
  2. (b)M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
  3. (c)State of Himanchal Pradesh v. Ganesh Wood Products✓
  4. (d)Indian Council for Enviro-legal Action v. Union of India
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : In the case of State of Himachal Pradesh v. Ganesh Wood Products (1995), the Supreme Court reiterating the importance of intergenerational equity remarked that the present generation has no right to exhaust all the existing forests and leave nothing for the next and future generations.

In the case of S. Jagannath v. Union of India (1997), the Supreme Court said that the seashore is a gift of nature and ordered to stop crab farming due to their pollution.

In the case of M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (1988), the public interest litigation, the Supreme Court ordered the closure of tanneries situated at Jajmau near Kanpur because the water of Ganga was getting polluted from them.

In the case of Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v. Union of India (1996), the Court gave importance to sustainable development. The Court said that environment and development should go hand in hand.

2016Match the lists

Match List - I with List - II using codes given below.

List-I

A. Banning plastic carry bag below 40 MW affecting Environment, Animals and Wildlife.

B. The burden of proof will be on industry or the Unit which is likely to cause pollution.

C. Compensate for reversing the ecology and compensate the individual for loss suffered.

D. Dislocation of poor Forest dwellers will infringe their Funmdamental right to life and livelihood.

List-II

1. Vellore Citizen Welfare Forun v. Union of India.

2. Research Foundation for Science v. Union of India.

3. Banwasi Seva Ashram v. State of U.P.

4. Jagnath v. Union of India.

Code:

  1. (a)A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3✓
  2. (b)A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
  3. (c)A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
  4. (d)A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) :

Research Foundation for Science v. Union of India 2005 (S.C.) - Banning plastic bags below 40 M.W. affecting environment, animals and wildlife.

Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v. Union of India 1996 (S.C.) - The burden of proof would be on the industry or unit which is likely to cause pollution.

S. Jagannath v. Union of India 1996 (S.C.) - Compensation for reversing the ecology and compensation to the individual for damage suffered.

Banwasi Seva Ashram v. State of U.P. 1986 (S.C.) - Dislocation of poor forest dwellers violates their fundamental right to life and livelihood.

2016

The relevant Constitutional Amendment which obligates the Municipal bodies to ensure Environmental protection are

  1. (a)42nd and 43rd
  2. (b)65th and 66th
  3. (c)71st and 72nd
  4. (d)73rd and 74th✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : The 42nd Constitutional Amendment made provisions regarding environment in Articles 48-A and 51-A (g).

Article 48-A - The State shall endeavor to protect and improve the environment and safeguard the forests and wild life of the country.

By the 65th Amendment, Article 338 was amended to constitute the National Commission and its powers for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in place of Special Officer.

By the 71st Amendment, more languages were added in the 8th Schedule of the Constitution – Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali – as official languages.

By adding Part-9 by the 73rd Amendment and Part-9A by the 74th Amendment, provisions have been made regarding Panchayats and Municipalities. The duty to protect the environment has also been imposed on them.

2016Match the lists

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct using the codes given below.

List-I

A. Justice Ranganath Misra

B. Justice A.S. Anand

C. Justice M.N. Venkatachalaiah

D. Justice J.S. Verma

List-II

1. 2nd Chairperson of NHRC

2. 3rd Chairperson of NHRC

3. 1st Chairperson of NHRC

4. 4th Chairperson of NHRC

Code:

  1. (a)A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2✓
  2. (b)A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
  3. (c)A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
  4. (d)A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) :

Justice Ranganath Misra - 1st Chairperson of N.H.R.C.

Justice M.N. Venkatachalaiah - 2nd Chairperson of N.H.R.C.

Justice J.S. Verma - 3rd Chairperson of N.H.R.C.

Justice A.S. Anand - 4th Chairperson of N.H.R.C.

Justice S. Rajendra Babu - 5th Chairperson of N.H.R.C.

Justice K.G. Balakrishnan - 6th Chairperson of N.H.R.C.

Justice H.L. Dattu - 7th Chairperson of N.H.R.C.

2017Assertion–Reason

Read both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer by using the codes given below:

Assertion (A): Over 200 central and state statutes which have atleast some concern with environmental protection, either directly or indirectly have unfortunately not resulted in preventing environmental degradation, on the contrary has increased over the years.

Reason (R): Unless the Government policy is backed by adequate budgetary allocation, changes to the statutory regime and a bureaucratic will, the government's intention are apt to remain on paper.

Codes:

  1. (a)Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)✓
  2. (b)Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  3. (c)(A) is correct, but (R) is wrong
  4. (d)(A) is wrong, but (R) is correct
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : It is true that more than two hundred central and state legislations, which have at least some concerns of direct or indirect environmental protection, have not been successful in preventing environmental degradation, rather environmental degradation has increased in the previous years. Therefore, until the government policy is supported by adequate budgetary allocation, changes in the statutory mechanism and the will of the bureaucracy, government intentions are likely to remain on paper.

2017Match the lists

Match List-I and List-II and find correct answer by using codes given below:

List-I

A. Public Liability

B. Sustainable Development

C. Wild life protection

D. Hazardous waste/material

List-II

1. State of Bihar v. Murad Ali Khan

2. M.C. Mehta and M.C. Mehta and Another v. Union of India and others

3. Research Foundation for Science v. Union of India and others

4. Narmada Bachao Andolan v. Union of India

Code:

  1. (a)A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
  2. (b)A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3✓
  3. (c)A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
  4. (d)A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) :

Public Liability - M.C. Mehta and others v. Union of India and others 1987 S.C.

Sustainable Development - Narmada Bachao Andolan v. Union of India 2000 S.C.

Wild Life Protection - State of Bihar v. Murad Ali Khan 1988 S.C.

Hazardous Waste - Research Foundation for Science v. Union of India and others 2006 S.C.

2017

Give correct answer by using codes given below:

The Environmental approach has led the Supreme Court to derive adopt and apply a range of principles to guide the development of evironmental jurisprudence. Notable amongst the fundamental norms recognised by the court are

1. Every person enjoys the right to a wholesome environment, which is a part of the right to life guaranteed under Art. 21 of the Constitution

2. Enforcement agencies are under an obligation to strictly enforce environmental laws

3. Government agencies may not plead non-availability of funds, inadequacy of staff or other insufficiencies to justify the non-performance of their obligations under enviornmental laws

4. Stringent action ought to be taken against contumacious defaulters and persons who carry on industrial or development activity for profit without regard to environmental laws

Codes:

  1. (a)only 1 and 2
  2. (b)only 1, 2 and 3
  3. (c)1, 2, 3 and 4✓
  4. (d)only 1
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : The Hon'ble Supreme Court has given many principles and guidelines for the protection of environment-

(1) Every person has the right to a healthy environment, which is included in the right to life inherent in Article 21 of the Constitution. (M.C. Mehta v. Union of India 1987)

(2) Implementation of environmental laws is the responsibility of implementing agencies.

(3) Enforcement agencies cannot take any plea in performing their duty.

(4) Strict action should also be taken against stubborn defaulters and those persons who run developmental or industrial activities for profit by ignoring environmental laws.

2017

Which one of the following is correct?

The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act of 1981 was enacted

  1. (a)by the Parliament under Art 252 (1) of the Constitution after securing enabling resolution from the States
  2. (b)by the Parliament invoking the power under Art 253 to make laws implementing decisions taken at International Conferences✓
  3. (c)by the states, as the executive functions under the Air Act are carried out by the State Pollution Control Board
  4. (d)by the Parliament based on the directions given by the Supreme Court
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 was enacted by the Parliament by exercising the power under Article 253 to make laws to implement the decisions taken in international conferences.

2017

The Supreme Court in which one of the following cases observed that, "the issue of pollution should not be resolved at the cost of the poor people's livelihood"?

  1. (a)Indian Council for Enviro Legal Action v. Union of India
  2. (b)Municipal Council, Ratlam v. Vardichand
  3. (c)M.C. Mehta v. Union of India✓
  4. (d)T.N. Godavarman Thimmulpaad v. Union of India
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : In the case of M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (1997) SC, the Supreme Court remarked that the issue of pollution should not be settled at the cost of the livelihood of the poor man.

2017

Under the Wild Life Protection Act the boundaries of a National Park shall be made in one of the following way:

  1. (a)By passing a resolution in the Parliament
  2. (b)By passing a resolution in the Legislature of a State✓
  3. (c)By passing a resolution both in the Parliament and State Legislature
  4. (d)By passing a resolution in the Municipal Body and State Legislature
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : Section 35 of the Wild Life Protection Act, 1972 contains a provision relating to declaration of National Parks - According to which the boundaries of a National Park shall be made by passing a resolution in the Legislature of the State.

2017Sequence / order

Arrange the following decided cases on the right to health in a chronological order and choose the answer by using the code given below:

1. Paschim Banga Khet Mazdoor Samiti v. State of West Bengal

2. Parmanand Katara v. Union of India

3. Social Jurists v. Government of NCT of Delhi

4. Sahara House v. Union of India

Code:

  1. (a)2, 1, 3, 4✓
  2. (b)4, 1, 2, 3
  3. (c)2, 4, 3, 1
  4. (d)1, 4, 1, 2
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : Correct chronological order of specified cases relating to right to health is as follows-

(1) Parmanand Katara v. Union of India Year 1989

(2) Paschim Banga Khet mazdoor Samiti v. State of West Bengal Year 1996

(3) Social Jurist v. Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi Year 2007

(4) Sahara House v. Union of India Year 2014

Which one of the following is incorrect?

(a) Montreal protocol is related to Hazardous Waste?

(b) The Precautionary Principle and Polluter Pays Principle are essential features of the principles of sustainable development

(c) The Stockholm Declaration of 1972 has been described as the Magna Carta of our environment

(d) No state has a right to use or permit the use of its territory so as to cause injury by fumes in the territory of another

Ans. (a) : Montreal Protocol is an international treaty on substances depleting the ozone layer, which has been made to prevent the emission of those substances in a phased manner to protect the ozone layer, which are considered responsible for depleting the ozone layer.

"The State is the trustee of all natural resources which are by nature meant for public use and enjoyment and that Indian legal system includes the Public Trust Doctrine as a part of its jurisprudence".

2018

The Supreme Court of India has observed the above in one of the following case:

  1. (a)T.N. Codavarman Thirumulpad v. Union of India✓
  2. (b)Indian Coucil for Enviro-Legal Action v. Union of India
  3. (c)M.C. Mehtha v. Union of India
  4. (d)Shri Sachidananda Pandey v. State of West Bengal
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : The Supreme Court of India has remarked in the case of T.N. Godavarman Tirumulpad v. Union of India that the State is the trustee of all natural resources which are inherently for public use and enjoyment, and the Indian legal system includes the Public Trust Doctrine as a part of its jurisprudence.

2018Match the lists

Match List-I (name of case) with List-II (principle of natural justice) and give correct answer by using the code below:

List-I

A. No state has a right to use or permit the use of its territory so as to cause injury by fumes in the territory of another

B. The Economic Benefit must substantially exceed its Environmental Cost

C. The present generation has no right to deplete all the existing forest and leave nothing for the next and future generation

D. Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and their Disposal

List-II

1. Basel Convention

2. Trail Smelter Case

3. Environment Impact Assessment

4. Inter Generational Equity

Code:

  1. (a)A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
  2. (b)A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
  3. (c)A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1✓
  4. (d)A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : Combination of list I and list II-

1. Basel Convention - International treaty relating to transboundary movement of hazardous waste materials and control over them and disposal of these materials.

2. Trail Smelter Case - No state has the right to use its territory in such a way or to allow its use that it causes damage by smoke in the territory of another. (This dispute was a case of transboundary pollution involving the federal governments of both Canada and the United States of America)

3. Environmental Impact Assessment - Economic benefit should be sufficiently more than its environmental cost.

4. Intergenerational Equity - The present generation has no right to exhaust all the existing forests and leave nothing for the next and future generations.

2018

Which of the following do not come under the powers and functions of the Central Board as provided Under the Air Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981?

  1. (a)Planning and execution of National programme for prevention, control and abatement of Air Pollution
  2. (b)Co-ordinating activities of State Boards and resolving disputes among them
  3. (c)Fixing standards of Quality of Air
  4. (d)Making recommendations to the State government for removal of State Board which is defaulter in discharging its duties under the Act✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : The powers and functions of the Central Board under section 16 are as follows, as per the provisions made under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981-

1. To advise the Central Government on the relevant subject for the improvement in the qualities of air and prevention, control or abatement of air pollution.

2. To plan and execute a national level programme for prevention, control or abatement of air pollution.

3. To coordinate the activities of the State and to resolve disputes between them.

4. To fix standards for the qualities of air.

5. To collect and disseminate information related to air pollution.

Option (d) given in the question is not correct.

2018

In which one of the following case the Supreme Court of India held that right to access to drinking water is fundamental to life and it is the duty of the State under Act 21 to provide cleaning drinking water to its citizens?

  1. (a)Vellore Citizens Welfare forum v. Union of India
  2. (b)A.P. Pollution Control Board v. M.V. Nayadu✓
  3. (c)M.C. Mehtha v. Union of India
  4. (d)Karnataka Industrial Area Development Board v. Shri C. Kenchappa
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : In the case of A.P. Pollution Control Board v. M.V. Nayudu (1999 S.C. 718), the S.C. gave the decision that the right to access to drinking water is fundamental to life and under Article 21 it is the duty of the State to provide clean drinking water to its citizens.

2018

Which one of the following is not the function of the Central (pollution Control) Board under the Water Act, 1974?

  1. (a)To advise the Central government on any matter concerning the prevention and control of water pollution
  2. (b)To co-ordinate the activities of the State Boards and resolve diputes among them
  3. (c)To advise the State Government on any matter concering the prevention, control or abatement of water pollution✓
  4. (d)To provide technical assistance and guidance to the State Boards, carry out and sponsor investigations and research relating to problems of water pollution and prevention, control or abatement of water pollution
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : Under the Water Act 1974, the functions of the Central (Pollution Control) Board are as follows-

(1) To advise the Central Government on matters relating to prevention and control of water pollution.

(2) To coordinate the activities of the State Boards.

(3) To provide technical assistance and guidance to the boards and to investigate and research problems of water pollution and prevention, control of water pollution.

Therefore, option (c) is not correct.

Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer using the code given below:

2018Assertion–Reason

Assertion (A): The Government could not control pollutions, in spite of the Continuous Environmental Monitoring System (CEMS) introduced in 2014.

Reason (R): Environment related data, especially on the performance of polluters, has always been both limited in scope and invisible to the public.

Code:

  1. (a)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)✓
  2. (b)Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  3. (c)(A) is true, but (R) is false
  4. (d)(A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : Despite the Continuous Environment Monitoring System (CEMS) started by the government in 2014, the control of pollution could not be stopped and the pollution kept increasing day by day, because the data related to the action of environment pollutants is limited and invisible to the people.

Therefore, both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

2018

The code of Criminal procedure which contains some general provisions to cover ordinary situations came to be regarded as an instrument to combat pollution is 1980 and was utilized in one of the following cases.

  1. (a)Subhash Kumar v. State of Bihar
  2. (b)Charan Lal Sahu v. Union of India
  3. (c)A.P. State Pollution Control Board v. Prof M.V. Naidu
  4. (d)Municipal Council Rarlam v. Vardichand✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : In the case of Municipal Council Ratlam v. Vardichand, the Supreme Court said that anyone who violates the order issued under Section 133 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 will be punished under Section 188 of the Indian Penal Code. This provision is considered as a means to prevent pollution. (Section 133)

2018

To give constitutional sanction to democracy at the grassroot level through panchayat and Municipalities, 73rd and 74th Amendments were made in 1992. Which one of the following subjects related to Environment is not found in the Twelfth Schedule?

  1. (a)Urban planning including town planning
  2. (b)Regulation of land use and construction of buildings
  3. (c)Animals husbandry, Dairying and Poultry✓
  4. (d)Public health, sanitation, conservancy and solid waste
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : The 12th Schedule was added by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act 1992. This Schedule has 18 entries. The 12th Schedule includes -

- Urban planning including town planning

- Regulation of land use and construction of buildings

- Management of public health, sanitation conservancy and solid waste, etc.

But animal husbandry, dairying and poultry are outside this list.

2019

'Public health, sanitation conservancy and solid waste management' is inserted to the Schedule of the Constitution by which of the following Constitutional Amendments?

  1. (a)42nd Constitutional Amendment
  2. (b)44th Constitutional Amendment
  3. (c)73rd Constitutional Amendment
  4. (d)74th Constitutional Amendment✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : Through the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act 1994, public health, sanitation conservancy and solid waste management were included in the 12th Schedule of the Constitution.

2019

"Decision making process of those authorities besises being transparent must result in a reasoned conclusion which is reflective of a due application of mind to the diverse concerns arising from a project such as the present." This has been observed regarding Environment Impact Assessment Law in which of the following cases?

  1. (a)Utkarsh Mandal v. Union of India
  2. (b)Deepak Kumar v. State of Haryana
  3. (c)Gram Panchayat Navlakh Umbre v. Union of India✓
  4. (d)Tehri Banch Virodhi Sangarsh Samiti v. State of UP
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : In the case of Gram Panchayat Navlakh Umbre v. Union of India, the Supreme Court held that the decision-making process of those authorities besides being transparent must result in a reasoned conclusion which is reflective of a due application of mind to the diverse concerns arising from a project such as the present.

2019

Some of the notification under Environment Protection Act 1986 is listed below. Choose the correct option year wise:

1. Notification on:

  1. (a)Coastal Regulation Zone
  2. (b)Environmental Auditing
  3. (c)Environmental Impact Assessment
  4. (d)Dumping and Disposal of Fly Ash

2. Notification on:

  1. (a)Dumping and Disposal of Fly Ash
  2. (b)Coastal Regulation Zone
  3. (c)Environmental Auditing
  4. (d)Environmental Auditing

3. Notification on:

  1. (a)Coastal Regulation Zone
  2. (b)Dumping and Disposal of Fly Ash
  3. (c)Environmental Auditing
  4. (d)Environmental Impact Assessment

4. Notification on:

  1. (a)Environmental Impact Assessment
  2. (b)Coastal Regulation Zone
  3. (c)Environmental Auditing
  4. (d)Dumping and Disposal of Fly Ash
Answer & explanation

Ans. (1) : List of year-wise notifications under Environment (Protection) Act 1986-

a- Coastal Regulation Zone (1991)

b- Environmental Auditing (1992)

c- Environmental Impact Assessment (1994)

d- Dumping and Disposal of Fly Ash (1999)

2019

A malignant act likely to spread infection or disease dangerous to life and making atmosphere noxious to health are punishable offences for environment protection. But the punishment are meagre to meet objectives. Under which of the following law such meagre punishment is give

  1. (a)Environment Protection Act 1986
  2. (b)Indian Penal Code✓
  3. (c)The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act 1981
  4. (d)The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act 1974
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : Section 270 of the Indian Penal Code provides for meagre punishment for a malignant act likely to spread infection of any disease dangerous to life, under which whoever commits such a malignant act shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to 2 years, or with fine, or with both.

2019Match the lists

Match the following

List-I

A. Exemplary damages

B. Evaluation of cleanliness of various fuels

C. Public Trust Doctrine

D. Right of each generation to benefit from the past generation and to preserve such heritage for future

List-II

1. MC Mehta V Kamalnath

2. Sterilite Industries

3. Intergenerational equity

4. Bhurelal Committee

Choose correct option from those given below:

  1. (a)A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
  2. (b)A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3✓
  3. (c)A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
  4. (d)A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : The correct matching is as follows-

A. Exemplary damages - Sterilite Industries

B. Evaluation of cleanliness of various fuels - Bhurelal Committee

C. Public Trust Doctrine - MC Mehta v Kamalnath

D. Right of each generation to benefit from the past generation and to preserve such heritage for future - Intergenerational equity

2019Match the lists

Match the following cases decided by the Supreme Court with the subject given therein:

List-I

A. Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar

B. Murli S. Deora v. Union of India

C. Lakshmi Kant Pandey v. Union of India

D. Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration

List-II

1. Ban on smoking in public places

2. Protection against inhuman treatment in jail

3. Speedy Trial

4. Child welfare

Choose the correct option from these given below:

  1. (a)A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
  2. (b)A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
  3. (c)A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2✓
  4. (d)A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : Matching

(1) Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar case is related to Speedy Trial.

(2) Murli S. Deora v. Union of India case is related to ban on smoking in public places.

(3) Lakshmi Kant Pandey v. Union of India case is related to child welfare.

(4) Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration case is related to protection against inhuman treatment in jail.

Right to Education Act seeks to provide free and compulsory education to all children between 6 and 14 years. But a modification in Child labour Act formalises employment of children between 0 and 14 years in the family enterprises. Therefore, which of the following ILO Conventions is violated?

1. Convention 138

2. Convention 182

3. Convention 126

4. Convention 141

Choose the correct option:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 3 and 4

(c) 1 and 4

(d) 2 and 3

Ans. (a) : According to Article 21A of the Indian Constitution, the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years. However, by formalising the employment of children aged 0 to 14 years in family enterprises under the Child Labour Act, Convention 138 and Convention 182 of the International Labour Organization are violated.

Dec 2020/June 2021 · Q60

Examine the relevancy of class action suit and choose the correct answer

(A) A class action would measurably assist in securing redress in Environmental cases

(B) Monetary recoveries from the tort feasors in environmental cases can only be obtained through a suit

(C) The writ procedure appears more suited than the class action procedure

(D) The most obvious use of class action is in the mass disasters of the sort that occurred in Bhopal

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

  1. (a)(A), (B), (C) Only✓
  2. (b)(A), (C), (D) Only
  3. (c)(B), (C), (D) Only
  4. (d)(A), (B), (C) Only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) (A), (B), (C) Only

Dec 2020/June 2021 · Q70

The Supreme Court of India recognized the signification of Inter-generational equity and held a government department's approval to establish forest based Industry to be invalid in one of the following case

  1. (a)State of Himachal Pradesh V. Ganesh Wood products✓
  2. (b)Vellore citizen's forum V. Union of India
  3. (c)Dr. B.L. Wadehra V Union of India
  4. (d)M.C., Metha V Union of India
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) State of Himachal Pradesh V. Ganesh Wood products

Dec 2020/June 2021 · Q98

The Government of India's Policy on abatement of pollution adopted certain guiding principles in the year 1992. Which of the following is not covered under the said guiding principles?

  1. (a)Prevention of pollution at source
  2. (b)Adoption of best available technology
  3. (c)Involvement of NGO's for all purposes✓
  4. (d)Public participation in decision making
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) Involvement of NGO's for all purposes

December 2022 · Q46

Which of the following cases are related to environmental protection?

A. State of Orissa V/s Rabindranath Dalai and others

B. Subhash Kumar V/s State of Bihar and others

C. Almitra h patel and others V/s Union of India and others

D. M.C, Mehta V/s Union of India

E. Kashi Ram and others V/s State of Rajasthan

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. (a)A, B and C only
  2. (b)B, C and E only
  3. (c)C, D and E only
  4. (d)B, C and D only✓
Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) B, C and D only

December 2022 · Q47

A person shall not be a member of State Board constituted under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981

A. Such person is or at any time has been adjudged insolvent

B. has been declared by a competent court to be of unsound mind

C. has been convicted of an offence under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981

D. has become above 65 years of age

E. guilty of an offence involving moral turpitude

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. (a)A, B, C, and D only
  2. (b)B, C, D and E only
  3. (c)A, B, C and E only✓
  4. (d)C, D, E and A only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) A, B, C and E only

June 2023 · Q40Assertion–Reason

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as

Reason R

(Assertion A) (Reason R)

Assertion A : The polluter pays principle says that the absolute liability for the harm to environment extends not only to compensate the victims of pollution but also to the cost of restoring the environment degradation

Reason R : The case M.C Mehta v Kamalnath and other has decided so

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

  1. (a)Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. (b)Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  3. (c)A is correct but R is not correct A , R✓
  4. (d)A is not correct but R is correct A , R
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) A is correct but R is not correct A , R

June 2023 · Q58Assertion–Reason

Given below are two statement: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as

Reason R. Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(Assertion A) (Reason R)

Assertion A: Rights to pollution free air and clean water are attributes of the right of a dignified life

Reason R: These rights are the basic elements that sustain the life

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

  1. (a)Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A✓
  2. (b)Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  3. (c)A is correct but R is not correct A , R
  4. (d)A is not correct but R is correct A , R
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

June 2023 · Q63

Section 28 of the Indian Forest Act, 1927 provides for

  1. (a)Protected Areas
  2. (b)Reserved Forest
  3. (c)Village Forests✓
  4. (d)Power of Forest Settlement Officer
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) Village Forests

June 2023 · Q73

Which of the following case is popularly known as 'Taj Trapezium' case?

  1. (a)M.C Mehta v. Union of India & ors (1997) 2 SCC 353✓
  2. (b)Vineet Kumar Mathur v. Union of India (1996) 7 SCC 714
  3. (c)Okhla Bird Sanctuary v. Anand Arya (2011) 7 SCC 74
  4. (d)M.C Mehta v. Union of India (AIR 1987 SC 1086)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) M.C Mehta v. Union of India & ors (1997) 2 SCC 353

June 2023 · Q76

In which of the following cases the Supreme Court observed that the noise pollution cannot be tolerated even if such noise was direct results of and was connected with religious activities?

  1. (a)K.M. Chinappa v. Union of India
  2. (b)A.P. Pollution Control Board v. Prof. M.V Naidu
  3. (c)Church of God (Full Gospel) in India v. KKR Majestic Colony Welfare Association✓
  4. (d)Common Cause v. Union of India
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) Church of God (Full Gospel) in India v. KKR Majestic Colony Welfare Association

December 2023 · Q130

Polluter pays principle is also known as

  1. (a)Principle of Good Neighbourliness
  2. (b)Principle of Common Responsibility
  3. (c)Principle of Public Liability
  4. (d)Principle of Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR)✓
Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) Principle of Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR)

December 2024 · Q51Match the lists

Match List - I with List - II

List - I (Act)

(A) Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980

(B) Wild life Protection Act, 1972

(C) The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

(D) NGT Act, 2010

List- II (Provision on Penalties)

(1) Section 15 (II) Section 3 A and 3 B (III) Section 26 (IV) Section 51

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. (a)(A)-(II), (B)-(1), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
  2. (b)(A)-(I), (B)-(I), (С)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  3. (c)(A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
  4. (d)(A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)✓
Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)

December 2024 · Q65

"The Knowledge derified from authoritative books specified in the First Schedule to the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940" means what as per the definition in the Biological Diversity (Amendment) Act, 2023 ?

  1. (a)Traditional Knowledge
  2. (b)Sacred Knowledge
  3. (c)Codified Knowledge
  4. (d)Codified Traditional Knowledge✓
Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) Codified Traditional Knowledge

December 2024 · Q82

Which of the following can be considered as the first case of its kind in India involving issues relating to environment and ecological balance which brought the issue of conflict between development and conservation into sharp focus with the Supreme Court emphasising the need for reconciling the two in the larger interest of the country?

(A) R. L. and E Kendra, Dehradun v/s State of UP

(B) Goa Foundation v/s Konkan Railway Corporation

(C) T. N. Godavarman Thirumulpad v/s Union of India

(D) Tarun Bharat Sangh V. Union of India

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. (a)(A) Only✓
  2. (b)(B) Only
  3. (c)(C) Only
  4. (d)(D) Only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) (A) Only

December 2024 · Q87

What all items are included in the definition of biological resources according to the Biological Diversity Amendment Act, 2023 ?

(A) Plants and Animals

(B) Microorganisms or parts of their genetic material

(C) Human genetic material

(D) Plants, animals, microorganism or part of the derivatives including their value added products

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. (a)(A) and (C) Only
  2. (b)(B) and (C) Only
  3. (c)(A) and (B) Only✓
  4. (d)(B) and (D) Only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) (A) and (B) Only

June 2025 · Q12

When did the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change notify the Biological Diversity Rules, 2024?

  1. (a)25th December, 2024
  2. (b)18th January, 2024✓
  3. (c)1st April, 2024
  4. (d)22nd October, 2024
Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) 18th January, 2024

Explanation: The Biological Diversity Rules, 2024 were officially notified by the Ministry on 18th January, 2024, aiming to streamline conservation and equitable sharing of biological resources.

June 2025 · Q65

In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court give a split verdict on 23rd July 2024, involving health, environment, and intergenerational equity?

  1. (a)M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
  2. (b)Animal Welfare Board of India v. Union of India
  3. (c)M.K. Ranjitsingh v. Union of India
  4. (d)Gene Campaign v. Union of India✓
Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) Gene Campaign v. Union of India

Explanation: This case involved commercial sale of Genetically Modified Mustard (GM Mustard) in India.

June 2025 · Q69Match the lists

Match the following judicial decisions with environmental issues

List-I (Cases)

A. State of Gujarat v. Reliance Industries

B. Municipal Corporation Ghaziabad v. CPCB

C. Hanuman Laxman Aroskar v. Union of India

D. Riddhima Pandey v. Union of India

List-II (Issue)

1. Management of sewage treatment

2. Climate change

3. Environmental clearance for infrastructure

4. Green cess

  1. (a)A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
  2. (b)A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
  3. (c)A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2✓
  4. (d)A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2

Explanation: Each case addresses major environmental concerns, including urban waste, climate justice, and ecological clearances.

31 Dec 2025 (Shift 1) · Q93Match the lists

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II LIST-I (Concept in the Biological Diversity Act, 2002) LIST-II (Corresponding Section)

A. National Biodiversity Authority I. Section 32

B. State Biodiversity Fund II. Section 37

C. National Biodiversity Fund III. Section 8

D. Biodiversity Heritage Sites IV. Section 27

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. (a)A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  2. (b)A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
  3. (c)A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II✓
  4. (d)A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

31 Dec 2025 (Shift 1) · Q133

Which of the following Section in the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 prescribes for Benefit sharing fee and royalties?

  1. (a)Section 6✓
  2. (b)Section 10A
  3. (c)Section 30
  4. (d)Section 16
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) Section 6

June 2026 · Q57Sequence / order

Arrange the following landmark decision of the Supreme Court in matter relating to different aspects of Environment in their ascending order

A. A.P. Pollution Control Board v. M.V. Nayudu

B. Church of God (Full Gospel) in India v. KKR Majestic Colony Welfare Association

C. Vellore Citizen Welfare Forum v. UOI

D. S. Jagannath v. UOI

E. UP Pollution Control Board v. Modi Distillery

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. (a)E, A, D, C, B
  2. (b)C, D, A, B, E
  3. (c)E, C, D, A, B✓
  4. (d)B, A, C, D, E
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) E, C, D, A, B

Explanation: To determine the correct ascending order of these landmark Supreme Court decisions on environmental law, we look at their chronological years of judgment:

• E. UP Pollution Control Board v. Modi Distillery: Decided on August 6, 1987 (AIR 1988 SC 1128 / 1987 INSC 199).

• C. Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v. Union of India: Decided on August 28, 1996 (1996 5 SCC 647).

• D. S. Jagannath v. Union of India (Shrimp Culture Case): Decided on December 11, 1996 (1997 2 SCC 87).

• A. A.P. Pollution Control Board v. M.V. Nayudu: Decided on January 27, 1999 (1999 2 SCC 718).

• B. Church of God (Full Gospel) in India v. KKR Majestic Colony Welfare Association: Decided on August 30, 2000 (2000 7 SCC 282).

June 2026 · Q84

The constitution of Biodiversity Management Committees is provided under which section of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002?

  1. (a)Section 41✓
  2. (b)Section 51
  3. (c)Section 52A
  4. (d)Section 53
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) Section 41

Explanation: Under Section 41 of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, every local body (such as Panchayats, Municipalities, or Municipal Corporations) is mandated to constitute a Biodiversity Management Committee (BMC) within its territorial area to promote conservation, sustainable use, and documentation of biological diversity.

June 2026 · Q93Sequence / order

Arrange the following statutory enactment on environment in their ascending order

A. Forest Conservation Act

B. Indian Forest Act

C. Wildlife Protection Act

D. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act

E. Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. (a)C, D, E, A, B
  2. (b)B, D, C, E, A
  3. (c)C, D, B, A, E
  4. (d)B, C, D, A, E✓
Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) B, C, D, A, E

Explanation: Arranging the given environmental enactments in ascending chronological order based on the year of their enactment:

1. B. Indian Forest Act: Enacted in 1927 (Act No. 16 of 1927)

2. C. Wildlife Protection Act: Enacted in 1972 (Act No. 53 of 1972)

3. D. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act: Enacted in 1974 (Act No. 6 of 1974)

4. A. Forest Conservation Act: Enacted in 1980 (Act No. 69 of 1980)

5. E. Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act: Enacted in 1981 (Act No. 14 of 1981)

June 2026 · Q99

Which of the following provision of Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 empower the State government to designate any area within the State as water pollution control area after consultation or on recommendation of the State Board?

  1. (a)Section 18
  2. (b)Section 19✓
  3. (c)Section 20
  4. (d)Section 21
Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) Section 19

Explanation: Under Section 19 of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, the State Government is empowered to declare/designate any area or areas within the State as a "Water Pollution Control Area" after consultation with, or on the recommendation of, the State Pollution Control Board.

June 2026 · Q108

The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 was enacted by the Parliament under which of the following provision?

  1. (a)Article 252(1) of the Constitution
  2. (b)Article 253 of the Constitution✓
  3. (c)Environment Protection Act, 1986
  4. (d)Article 249 of the Constitution
Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) Article 253 of the Constitution

Explanation: The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 was enacted by the Parliament of India under Article 253 of the Constitution (read with Entry 13 of the Union List). Article 253 empowers Parliament to make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India for implementing any treaty, agreement, or convention, or any decision made at an international conference-specifically to implement the decisions taken at the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment held at Stockholm in June 1972.

June 2026 · Q121

The 'Precautionary Principle and Polluter Pays Principle' are a part of Customary International Law and part of Indian domestic law was laid down by the Supreme Court in which of the following case?

  1. (a)Kinkari Devi v. State (1987)
  2. (b)Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v. UOI (1996)
  3. (c)Vellore Citizen Welfare Forum v. UOI (1996)✓
  4. (d)Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra v. State of UP (1985)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) Vellore Citizen Welfare Forum v. UOI (1996)

Explanation: In Vellore Citizens' Welfare Forum v. Union of India (1996) (popularly known as the Tamil Nadu Tanneries Case), a three-judge bench of the Supreme Court of India led by Justice Kuldip Singh held that:

1. Sustainable Development, along with its essential features-the Precautionary Principle and the Polluter Pays Principle-has come to be accepted as part of Customary International Law.

2. Rules of Customary International Law that are not contrary to domestic/municipal law shall be deemed to have been incorporated into Indian domestic law.

3. Furthermore, these principles are impliedly derived from the Indian Constitution under Article 21 (Right to Life), Article 47, Article 48A (Directive Principles), and Article 51A(g) (Fundamental Duty to protect the environment).

Topic 4Environmental Impact Assessment and control of hazardous waste in India

5 questions · Open this topic on its own page

2014

Under whose specification the recycling of plastic is undertaken as per the Plastic Manufacture, Sales and Usage Rules, 1999?

  1. (a)Indian Standard Institution
  2. (b)Bureau of Indian Standards
  3. (c)Indian Standard Organisation
  4. (d)Indian Plastic Bureau✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : According to the Plastic Manufacture, Sales and Usage Rules, 1999, plastic is recycled under the specification of the Indian Plastic Bureau.

2017

'Basel Convention' is associated with one of the following conventions

  1. (a)International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora
  2. (b)The control of transboundary movements of Hazardous Wastes and their disposal✓
  3. (c)Climate change
  4. (d)Protection of the ozone layer
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : Basel Convention is related to the convention on the control of the transboundary movements of hazardous wastes and their disposal.

This convention came into force on 5 May 1992 and this convention was organized in Basel, Switzerland.

December 2024 · Q89

'Hazardous Substance' is defined under which of the following Act?

  1. (a)The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
  2. (b)The Environment (Protection) Act, 1989✓
  3. (c)The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
  4. (d)The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) The Environment (Protection) Act, 1989

December 2024 · Q105Sequence / order

Arrange the following rules in chronological order made under the Environment Protection Act, 1986

(A) The Construction and Demolition Waste Management Rules

(B) The Wetland (Conservation and Management) Rules

(C) The Chemical Accidents Rules

(D) The Batteries (Management and Handling) Rules

(E) The Manufacture, Storage and Impacts of Hazardous Chemical Rules

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. (a)(E), (C), (D), (A), (B)✓
  2. (b)(E), (D), (C), (A), (B)
  3. (c)(E), (D), (В), (A), (C)
  4. (d)(D), (E), (C), (A), (B)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) (E), (C), (D), (A), (B)

June 2026 · Q58Statements

Consider the following statement relating to import and export of Hazardous Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1989

A. Import and Export of hazardous waste not permissible under Rule 11

B. Import and Export of hazardous waste permissible for recycling and reuse

C. An occupier importing and exporting hazardous waste has to provide information in Form 5A

D. An occupier importing and exporting hazardous waste shall comply with Basel Convention

E. The Ministry of Environment and Forest is nodal Ministry to deal with trans-boundary movement of hazardous waste

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

  1. (a)A, C and D only
  2. (b)A, C, D and E only
  3. (c)A, B, D and E only✓
  4. (d)B, C and E only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) A, B, D and E only

Explanation: Evaluating each statement with respect to the Hazardous Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules, 1989 (and its subsequent amendments governing transboundary movement):

Statement A is Correct: Rule 11(1) explicitly establishes that the import of hazardous wastes into India from any country is not permissible for dumping and disposal.

• Statement B is Correct: Rule 11(1) provides a specific exception permitting the import of hazardous waste for processing, recycling, or reuse as raw material, subject to meritbased examination.

• Statement C is Incorrect: Any occupier/importer handling the import or export of hazardous waste is required to submit details in Form 6 (Format for notification and movement document), not Form 5A.

• Statement D is Correct: Transboundary movements of hazardous waste under the statutory rules must comply with international obligations under the Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and Their Disposal.

• Statement E is Correct: The Ministry of Environment and Forests (MoEF) serves as the central nodal ministry for regulating, processing, and clearing all transboundary movements of hazardous waste. Thus, the correct combination of statements is A, B, D, and E.

•

Topic 5National Green Tribunal

12 questions · Open this topic on its own page

2014

The national Enviornment Tribunal Act provides for compensation on the basis of no fault liablity in the cases of

1. Death of any person

2. Injury to any person

3. Death and injury to workman

4. Damage to any property

  1. (a)I and II are correct
  2. (b)II and III are correct
  3. (c)IV only is correct
  4. (d)I, II and IV are correct✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : The National Environment Tribunal Act provides for compensation on the basis of no fault liability in the following circumstances-

1. Death of any person

2. Injury to any person

3. Damage to any property

2019

The NGT Act, 2010 contains how many schedules?

  1. (a)One
  2. (b)Two
  3. (c)Three✓
  4. (d)Four
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was published in the Gazette of India after the President's signature on 2 June 2010. This Act has 35 sections and three schedules.

Which Article of the UN Charter puts the promotion of respect for human rights on the same level as the maintenance of international peace and security as a purpose of the UN?

(a) Article 1

(b) Article 2

(c) Article 3

(d) Article 4

Ans. (a) : The purposes for which the United Nations was established are mentioned in Article 1 of the Charter. These purposes are-

(1) To maintain international peace and security

(2) To develop friendly relations among nations

(3) To achieve international co-operation

(4) To be a centre for harmonizing the actions of nations

June 2020 · Q42Match the lists

Match List I with List II

I -II

List I/I List II/II Provision Section under National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 ( 2010)

A. Hazardous Substance I. Section 2 (a) 2 (a)

B. Environment II. Section 2 (e) 2 (e)

C. Handling III. Section 2 (f) 2 (f)

D. Accident IV. Section 2 (c) 2 (c)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. (a)A- I; B - III; C - IV; D - II
  2. (b)A - II; B - I; C - IV; D - III
  3. (c)A - III, B - IV; C - II; D - I✓
  4. (d)A - IV; B - III; C – I; D - II
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) A - III, B - IV; C - II; D - I

Dec 2021/June 2022 · Q88

The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 came into force on

  1. (a)10 May 2010
  2. (b)18 August 2010
  3. (c)10 December 2010
  4. (d)18 October 2010✓
Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) 18 October 2010

December 2022 · Q48

Who among the following persons have been members of National Green Tribunal?

A. Justice A Suryanarayan Naidu

B. Justic Dipak Misra

C. Justice C Venkata Ramana

D. Justice Rang Nath Mishra

E. Justice Pratap Kumar Ray

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. (a)A, C and D A, C, D
  2. (b)A, C and E A, C, E✓
  3. (c)B, C, D and E B, C, D, E
  4. (d)B, D and A only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) A, C and E A, C, E

June 2023 · Q27

Which of the following Schedules of the National Green Tribunal (NGT) Act provides of the heads of the compensation

  1. (a)Schedule IV
  2. (b)Schedule II✓
  3. (c)Schedule III
  4. (d)Schedule I
Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) Schedule II

December 2023 · Q69

As per National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, "Environment" includes water, air and land and other interrelationship, which exists among and between water, air and land and human beings, other living creatures, plants, microorganism and

  1. (a)Ecosystem
  2. (b)Biodiversity
  3. (c)Property✓
  4. (d)Climate
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) Property

December 2024 · Q53

Which of the following is the Schedule II of the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010?

  1. (a)List of the Acts Repealed
  2. (b)List of the Acts Amended
  3. (c)Heads under which compensation or relief for damage may be claimed✓
  4. (d)Rules to be followed by NGT
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) Heads under which compensation or relief for damage may be claimed

December 2024 · Q69

The chairperson of The National Green Tribunal shall be appointed by whom ?

  1. (a)Central Government alone
  2. (b)Central Government in Consultation with The Chief Justice of India✓
  3. (c)Central Government in Consultation with The outgoing Chairperson of The Tribunal
  4. (d)Central Government in Consultation with President and Chief Justice of India
Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) Central Government in Consultation with The Chief Justice of India

December 2024 · Q96

The case of Vardhaman Kaushik v/s Union of India decided in 2014-15 is considered unique in the context of resolving the menace of air pollution in Delhi because

(A) The National Green Tribunal rejected the petition for want of locus standi for the petitioner

(B) The National Green Tribunal adopted the pragmatic "consultative and deliberated" approach in this case

(C) The National Green Tribunal rejected the petition for want of jurisdiction in the matter

(D) The National Green Tribunal permitted the burning of crop remnant in agricultural fields falling in NCR Delhi

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. (a)(D) Only
  2. (b)(C) Only
  3. (c)(B) Only✓
  4. (d)(A) Only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) (B) Only

June 2025 · Q73

Which of the following Acts is not included under Schedule I of the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010?

  1. (a)The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
  2. (b)The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
  3. (c)The Biological Diversity Act, 2002
  4. (d)The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006✓
Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006

Explanation: This Act is not included under Schedule I of the NGT Act; NGT does not have jurisdiction over this legislation.

31 Dec 2025 (Shift 1) · Q62

National Green Tribunal Act come into force on which date?

  1. (a)18 Oct 2010✓
  2. (b)18 Nov 2010
  3. (c)8 Oct 2010
  4. (d)8 Nov 2010
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) 18 Oct 2010

Topic 6Concept and development of human rights

56 questions · Open this topic on its own page

2012

Regional Human Rights Court does not exist in

  1. (a)Africa
  2. (b)Europe
  3. (c)America
  4. (d)Asia✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : Regional human rights courts exist in Africa, Europe and America. There is no regional human rights court in Asia.

2012

Which protocol to the European Convention on Human Rights has abolished European Commission of Human Rights?

  1. (a)Protocol 1
  2. (b)Protocol 2
  3. (c)Protocol 3
  4. (d)Protocol 11✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : Protocol 11 to the European Convention on Human Rights abolished the European Commission of Human Rights.

2012Match the lists

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer with the help of codes attached.

List-I

A. Magna Carta

B. International Convention on Civil and Political Rights

C. Universal Declaration of Human Righs

D. Convention on the Rights of Child

List-II

1. 1948

2. 1989

3. 1215

4. 1966

Codes:

  1. (a)A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2✓
  2. (b)A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
  3. (c)A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
  4. (d)A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : List-I and List-II are matched as follows:

A. Magna Carta - 1215

B. International Convention on Civil and Political Rights - 1966

C. Universal Declaration of Human Rights - 1948

D. Convention on the Rights of Child - 1989

2012

Which one of the following is the fourth generation of Human Right?

  1. (a)Right to Life
  2. (b)Right to Health
  3. (c)Right to Enviornment
  4. (d)Right to Communication✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : Right to communication is the fourth generation of human rights. Technological human rights can bring a new opportunity for the protection of human rights.

2013

Find correct answer using codes given below:

Following are main approaches to explain nature and meaning of human rights:

1. The scientific right theory

2. The moral right theory

3. The natural right theory

4. The legal right theory

Code:

  1. (a)1 and 2 are correct
  2. (b)2 and 3 are correct
  3. (c)3 and 4 are correct✓
  4. (d)4 and 1 are correct
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : The natural right theory and the legal right theory are the main approaches to explain the nature and meaning of human rights.

2013Assertion–Reason

Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Find correct answer using codes given below:

Assertion (A): The purpose of Human Rights is to provide protection against the abuse of power committed by the organs of State.

Reason (R): Due to absence of Lok Pal the misuse of power by the State cannot be effectively checked.

Code:

  1. (a)(A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
  2. (b)(A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)✓
  3. (c)(A) is true and (R) is false
  4. (d)(A) is false and (R) is true
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : No organ of the State can violate human rights. It is necessary that human rights should be protected. Lokpal and State Lokayuktas were considered as an effective way to protect human rights.

2013Match the lists

Match item in Table-A with item in Table-B using codes given below:

Table-A

A. The first generation of Human Rights

B. The second generation of Human Rights

C. The third generation of Human Rights

D. Theoretical approach to Human Rights

Table-B

1. Idealistic Theory of Law

2. Collective Rights

3. Civil and Political Rights

4. Economic, Social and Cultural Rights

Codes:

  1. (a)A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
  2. (b)A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1✓
  3. (c)A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
  4. (d)A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : Matched table:

A. The first generation of Human Rights - Civil and Political Rights

B. The second generation of Human Rights - Economic, Social and Cultural Rights

C. The third generation of Human Rights - Collective Rights

D. Theoretical approach to Human Rights - Idealistic Theory of Law

2013Assertion–Reason

Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and find correct answer using codes given below:

Assertion (A): Advancement of rights of women has been the concern of world community since the end of Second World War.

Reason (R): In Second World War, population of men was significantly decreased.

Codes:

  1. (a)(A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
  2. (b)(A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)✓
  3. (c)(A) is true and (R) is false
  4. (d)(A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : The Second World War was fought from 1939 to 1945. It is true that at that time the population of men had decreased significantly because about 7 crore people were killed in this war. After this war, the world started thinking about the development of women in every country. After this war, the United Nations was formed so that wars could be avoided in the future.

2013Assertion–Reason

Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and find correct answer using codes given below:

Assertion (A): The child must be given the means requisite for his normal development, both materially and spiritually.

Reason (R): Spirituality is material and material is spiritual.

Code:

  1. (a)(A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
  2. (b)(A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
  3. (c)(A) is true, but (R) is false✓
  4. (d)(A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : It is true that the child must be given the means requisite for his normal mental and spiritual development. The future of any country can move forward only because of the good development of children. Considering this, the right to education was ensured in the Indian Constitution.

2013

The movement for protection of human rights gained greater momentum after..........

  1. (a)American War of Independence
  2. (b)Second World War
  3. (c)Atlantic Charter, 1941✓
  4. (d)The European Convention of Human Rights, 1950
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : After the Atlantic Charter 1941, the movement for protection of human rights gained greater momentum. The Protection of Human Rights Act came into force in India on 28 September 1993. It has total 8 chapters and 43 sections.

2013

The following period was designated by the United Nations as the UN decade for Human Rights Education?

  1. (a)1995-2004✓
  2. (b)1982-1991
  3. (c)1998-2007
  4. (d)2001-2010
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : The period 1955-2004 was designated by the United Nations as the UN decade for Human Rights Education.

2013Assertion–Reason

Assertion (A) : The political Implication of the theory of natural rights is that human rights, being inberent in man, existed prior to the birth of the State itself and cannot, therefore, be violated by the State.

Reason (R): Human rights are senior to State.

Codes:

  1. (a)Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. (b)Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)✓
  3. (c)(A) is true, but (R) is false
  4. (d)(A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : It is true that the political interpretation of the theory of natural rights is that human rights are inherent in man. Their origin was before the State, therefore the State cannot violate them and human rights are senior to the State. The United Nations has taken very effective steps in the development of human rights.

2013Statements

"You are a human being. You have rights inherent in that reality. You have dignity and worth that exists prior to law." This is the statement of

  1. (a)Bhagwati, J
  2. (b)Lyn Beth Neylon✓
  3. (c)Kofi Annan
  4. (d)None of the above
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : Lyn Beth Neylon said that because you are a human being, you have certain rights inherent. You have dignity and worth which existed prior to law. Justice Bhagwati was the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India. Kofi Annan was the Secretary General of the United Nations who was a resident of South Africa.

2013

The Human Right's has been classified into three categories viz

1. The Human Rights of first generation

2. The Human Rights of Second generation and

3. The Human Rights of third generation, by

  1. (a)Louis B. Sohan✓
  2. (b)Theodoor C. Bowen
  3. (c)R. Dworkin
  4. (d)Bernard Mayo
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : Louis B. Sohan classified human rights into three categories namely first generation, second generation and third generation human rights.

2013

"The most glaring instance of violation of Human Rights is the continuing poverty among mases in the country." Said by

  1. (a)Justice A.S. Anand✓
  2. (b)Justice N.Venkatachalaiah
  3. (c)Justice P.N. Bhagwati
  4. (d)Justice Koka Subha Rao
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : Justice A.S. Anand said that the most serious example of violation of human rights is the continuously increasing poverty among the general public in the country.

2013Match the lists

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:

List-I

A. The Magna Carta

B. The Petition of Rights

C. The English Bill of Rights

D. The U.N. Bill of Rights

List-II

1. 1628

2. 1789

3. 1215

4. 1689

Code:

  1. (a)A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2✓
  2. (b)A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
  3. (c)A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
  4. (d)A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : Matched list:

A. Magna Carta - 1215 AD

B. Petition of Rights - 1628 AD

C. English Bill of Rights - 1689 AD

D. U.N. Bill of Rights - 1789 AD

2013Sequence / order

Using codes, arrange following instruments according to sequence of their enactment starting from past towards present:

1. The Convention on the Political Rights of Women

2. The Declaration on the elimination of discrimination against women

3. The Convention on consent to marriage, minimum age for marriage and registration of marriage

4. The Convention on the nationality of married women

Codes:

  1. (a)1, 4, 3, 2 (b) 4, 3, 2, 1✓
  2. (c)3, 2, 1, 4 (d) 2, 1, 4, 3
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : Sequence from past towards present:

1. The Convention on the Political Rights of Women (1952)

2. The Convention on the Nationality of Married Women (1957)

3. The Convention on Consent to Marriage, Minimum Age for Marriage and Registration of Marriages (1962)

4. The Declaration on the Elimination of Discrimination Against Women (1967)

2014

The solidarity rights, more commonly known as 'Third Generation Human Rights' is based on:

  1. (a)Independent needs of people
  2. (b)Concept of universalism✓
  3. (c)Right to self-determination
  4. (d)Common heritage of mankind
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : 'The right of unity, commonly known as third generation human rights' is based on the concept of universalization.

2014

"Human rights have two main dimensions. One of them can be called negative freedom in the sense that it is less important, it is negative because such freedom is based on a bedrock of what cannot be done, rather than what can be done." The above is from the thoughts of

  1. (a)Kofi Annan
  2. (b)P.N. Bhagwati
  3. (c)Amartya Sen✓
  4. (d)M.N. Venkatachaliah
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : Amartya Sen made the following comments on human rights, there are two main dimensions of human rights in which one can be called negative freedom in the sense that it is less important. It is negative because it is based on the basic principle that what cannot be done but what can be done.

2014Statements

Human rights are inscribed in the hearts of the people; they were there long before law makers drafted their first proclamation. This statement was made by:

  1. (a)Kofi Annan
  2. (b)Krishna Iyer, J.
  3. (c)Mary Robinson✓
  4. (d)None of the above
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : Mary Robinson made the following statement related to human rights, human rights are inscribed in the hearts of the people, they existed long before the first declaration made by the law makers.

2014

Human Rights Council has taken the place of :

  1. (a)Human Right Committee
  2. (b)International Human Rights Institute
  3. (c)Centre for Human Rights
  4. (d)Human Rights Commission✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : On 15 March 2006, the United Nations General Assembly through a resolution (60/251) established the Human Rights Council in place of the Human Rights Commission.

Select the best answer using the codes given below:

2014Assertion–Reason

Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using codes given below:

Assertion (A): Human Rights are regarded as those fundamental but alienable rights which are preferred for life as human being.

Reason (R): Change is general rule of life. Therefore legislatures are free to change human rights according to changing needs and circustances.

Codes:

  1. (a)Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is correct reason for (A)
  2. (b)Both (A) and (R) are right, but (R) is not correct reason for (A)✓
  3. (c)Both (A) and (R) are wrong
  4. (d)(A) is wrong and (R) is right
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : Human rights which are very necessary for human life and which are counted as transferable rights because the right which is not transferable becomes useless after a period of time.

Change is a general rule of life and with time fundamental changes keep happening in the needs of people, hence the legislature is free to change the law according to the changing needs and circumstances.

2014Statements

Which of the following statements are wrong? Answer using codes:

1. Human rights are created by legislation

2. Legal duty to protect human rights is not duty to respect them

3. International concern with human rights as enshrined in the Untied Nations Charter is a modern innovation

4. A human right violation is now conceived as violation of those personally and directly aggrieved, but not of everyone

Codes:

  1. (a)i, ii/1, 2
  2. (b)ii, iii/2, 3
  3. (c)iii, iv/3, 4
  4. (d)i, ii, iii and iv/1, 2, 3, 4✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : All the above statements are wrong-

1. Human rights are inherent in the individual and are not created by law.

2. The legal duty to protect human rights is the duty to respect them.

3. International concern for human rights as enshrined in the United Nations Charter is not a modern innovation but a mere declaration of those rights.

4. Any violation of human rights, whether direct or indirect, individual, is considered a violation of rights.

2014Assertion–Reason

Read Assertion and Reason (R) and answer using codes given below:

Assertion (A): The purpose of the United Nation is to maintain national secuirty and peace.

Reason (R): Because Article of the Charter of the United Nations says so.

Codes:

  1. (a)Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is right reason for (A)
  2. (b)Both (A) and (R) are wrong✓
  3. (c)(A) is right and (R) is wrong
  4. (d)(A) is wrong and (R) is right
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : Article 1 of the United Nations Charter provides for the purposes of the United Nations, which are as follows -

(1) To maintain international peace and security.

(2) To develop friendly relations between nations.

(3) To find international solutions to economic, social, religious and human problems.

2014Statements

Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

  1. (a)The Public Liability Insurance Act was enacted to provide immediate relief to the victims of an accident involving a hazardous substance
  2. (b)The Public Liability Insurance Act imposes 'no fault' liability upon the owner of the hazardous substance and requires the owner to compensate the victims irrespective of any neglect or default on his part
  3. (c)The Public Lilbility Insurance Act, does not provide for maximum compensation for injury or death of the victims✓
  4. (d)The Public Liability Insurance Act obligates every owner to take out an insurance policy covering potential liability from an accident
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : It is wrong to say that the Public Liability Insurance Act does not provide for maximum compensation for the victim's injury or death.

2014Statements

Which of the following statement is wrong? Answer using codes given below:

1. Human Rights are essentially a product of bureaucracy

2. Human Rights are a reaction to tyranny

3. Primative man could move all over world, without any restriction

4. All women are born free, but everywhere they are in chains

Codes:

  1. (a)1 (b) 2✓
  2. (c)3 (d) 4
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : It is wrong to say that human rights are essentially a product of bureaucracy, rather it is true that human rights are a reaction to tyranny and that primitive man could also roam around and all women are born free but they are in chains.

2014Match the lists

Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II and choose the correct answer from the code given below

List-I

A. Mr Jose Ayala Lasso

B. Justice Nagendra Singh

C. Kofi Annan

D. Mrs. F.D. Roosevelt

List-II

1. President International Court of Justice

2. Secretary General U.N.O

3. Chairperson Commission on Human Rights

4. U.N. High Commissioner for Human Rights

Code:

  1. (a)A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3✓
  2. (b)A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
  3. (c)A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
  4. (d)A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : List-I matches with List-II as follows:

(a) Mr. Jose Ayala Lasso - U.N. High Commissioner for Human Rights

(b) Justice Nagendra Singh - President of the International Court of Justice

(c) Kofi Annan - Secretary General of U.N.O.

(d) Mrs. F.D. Roosevelt - Chairperson of Human Rights Commission

2014Statements

Which of the following Statements is correct?

  1. (a)The U.N. Convention on Elimination of all Forms of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW) was adapted by the General Assembly in 1979 but, India ratified it in june 1993✓
  2. (b)The U.N. Convention on Elimination of all Forms of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW) was adapted by the General Assembly in 1979 but, India ratified it in December 1997
  3. (c)The U.N. convention on Elimination of all Forms of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW) was adapted by the General Assembly in 1981 but, India ratified it in June 1993
  4. (d)The U.N. convention on Elimination of all Forms of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW) was adapted by the General Assembly in 1981 but, India ratified it in December 1997
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : The United Nations Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW) was adopted by the General Assembly in 1979, India ratified it in June 1993.

2014Sequence / order

The correct chronological order of the following Human Rights documents be chosen using the codes given below:

1. International Convenant on Civil and Political Rights

2. Convention on the Eliminatin of all Forms of Discrimination Against Women

3. Universal Declaration of Human Rights

4. Convention on the Rights of the Child

Code:

  1. (a)3, 2, 1, 4✓
  2. (b)3, 1, 2, 4
  3. (c)4, 3, 1, 2
  4. (d)3, 4, 2, 1
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) :

(a) Universal Declaration of Human Rights - 10 December 1948

(b) Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination Against Women - 1979

(c) International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights - 30 March 1976 (effective) 1966

(d) Convention on the Rights of the Child - 2 September 1990

2016Statements

Which one of the following statement is incorrect?

  1. (a)Environmental measures by the State/Central Government and statutory authorities must anticipate, prevent and attack the causes of environmental degradation
  2. (b)Where the threats are of serious and irreversible nature, lack of scientific certainty should not be used as reason for postponing measures to prevent environmental degradation
  3. (c)There need not be a bonafide reason to believe that the activity is not environmentally benign✓
  4. (d)The onus of proof is on the actor or the developer to show that his action is enviornmentally benign
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : Environmental measures should be anticipated and prevented by the State, Central Government and statutory authorities and they should be criticized.

Where the danger is grave and irreparable, lack of scientific certainty should not be used as a ground for postponing measures to prevent environmental damage.

It is the responsibility of the actor or developer to prove that his work is favorable to the environment.

Therefore, all the statements are true.

2016Match the lists

Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the codes given below.

List-I

A. The Virginia Bill of Rights

B. The U.N. Charter

C. The French Constitution

D. The Magna Carta

List-II

1. 1789

2. 1215

3. 1776

4. 1945

Code:

  1. (a)A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2✓
  2. (b)A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
  3. (c)A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
  4. (d)A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) :

The Virginia Bill of Rights - 1776

The U.N. Charter - 1945

The French Constitution - 1789

The Magna Carta - 1215

2017

Which Article of the U.N. Charter charges the U.N. to promote "Univeral respect for, and observance of human rights and fundamental freedoms for all without distinction as to sex, race, Language or religion"?

  1. (a)Article 56
  2. (b)Article 55(c)✓
  3. (c)Article 62
  4. (d)Article 76(c)
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : Article 55(c) of the United Nations Charter gives the United Nations the right to promote universal respect and human rights and fundamental freedoms of all without distinction of sex, race, language or religion.

Article 56 - All members pledge to take action jointly or separately in cooperation with the organization for the fulfillment of the purposes mentioned in Article 55.

Article 62 - It describes the functions of the Economic and Social Council.

Article 76(c) describes the objective of the international trusteeship system.

2017Match the lists

Match List-I and List-II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below:

List-I

A. The commission on Human Rights was established by the Economic and Social Council on

B. The General Assembly created the position of U.N. High Commissioner for Human Rights on

C. The General Assembly adopted Second Optional Protocol to the International Convenant on Civil and Political Rights

D. The Optional Protocol to the "International law on Civil and Polical Rights, 1966 came into force on

List-II

1. December 15, 1989

2. 20 December, 1993

3. February, 1946

4. March 23, 1976

Code:

  1. (a)A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4✓
  2. (b)A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
  3. (c)A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
  4. (d)A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) :

(A) Establishment of Human Rights Commission by Economic and Social Council - February 1946

(B) General Assembly created the post of United Nations High Commissioner for Human Rights - 20 December 1993

(C) General Assembly accepted the Second Optional Protocol attached to the International Treaty relating to Civil and Political Rights - 15 December 1989

(D) Optional Protocol attached to the International Law on Civil and Political Rights, 1966 came into force - 23 March, 1976

2017

Which of the following pair/pairs is/are not correctly matched? Give the correct answer by using the codes given below:

1. The World Conference on Human Rights was held at Vienna- Year 1993

2. International Conference on Human Rights at Tehran was held- Year 1958

3. First World Conference on Women was held on Beijing in - 1985

4. International Convention on Elimination of all forms of Racial Discrimination - 1973

Codes:

  1. (a)only 2
  2. (b)1 and 2
  3. (c)2, 3 and 4✓
  4. (d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) :

(1) The World Conference on Human Rights was held in Vienna, Austria from 14 to 25 June 1993.

(2) International Conference on Human Rights was held in Tehran in April and May 1968.

(3) The First World Conference on Women was held in Mexico in 1975.

(4) International Convention on Elimination of All Forms of Racial Discrimination came into force on 4 January 1969.

2017Assertion–Reason

Read both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer by using the codes given below:

Assertion (A): The Univeral Declaration of Human Rights does not define the term 'Human Rights'. It refers them as "the equal and inalienable rights of all members of the Humanity".

Reason (R): The framers of the Indian Constitution were influenced by the concept of Human Rights and guaranteed most of the Human Rights contained in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.

Codes:

  1. (a)Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. (b)Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)✓
  3. (c)(A) is correct, but (R) is wrong
  4. (d)(A) is wrong, but (R) is true
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : It is true that 'Human Rights' have not been defined in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights 1948. They have been described as 'equal and inalienable rights of all members of humanity'. The framers of the Indian Constitution were influenced by the concept of Human Rights and they guaranteed most of the Human Rights enshrined in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.

Note: The human rights described in UDHR have been included as fundamental rights in Part 3 of the Indian Constitution.

2017

To which of the following International Conventions on Human Rights, India has become party to such conventions? Give correct answer with the help of codes given below:

1. Convention on the Political Rights of Women

2. Convention on the Right of the Child

3. Convention for the Suppression of the Traffic in Person and of exploitation of the prostitution of others

4. Convention on International Recovery of Child Support and Other Forms of Family Maintenance

Codes:

  1. (a)only 1
  2. (b)1 and 4 only
  3. (c)1, 2, 3✓
  4. (d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : India is a member of the following international treaties out of the above options:

(1) Convention on Political Rights of Women - 1952

(2) Convention on the Rights of the Child - 1989

(3) Convention on Prevention of Human Trafficking and Exploitation of Other Persons for Sex Trade - 1949

2017Statements

Which one of the following statement is wrong?

  1. (a)Every person enjoys the right to a wholesoeme environmental which is a fact of the right to life guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution of India
  2. (b)The power confered under an Environmental Statute may be exercised only to advance Environment Protection and not for a purpose that would defeat the object of the law
  3. (c)Financial constraints of the government may be a reasonable factor to exonerate the Government/Municipal bodies from performing its statutory liability✓
  4. (d)Precautioary principle imposes the onus of proof on the developer to show his or her action in environmentally benign.
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : In Ratlam Municipality v. Vardhichand 1930 SC case, Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer had held that financial obligations of the government cannot be a rational factor to relieve the government/municipal bodies from performing their statutory obligations.

2017

The division of Human Rights into three generations was initially proposed in 1979 by one of the following Czech Jurist at the International Institute of Human Rights in Strassbourg?

  1. (a)Karel Vasak✓
  2. (b)Charles O. Lee
  3. (c)Maurice Cranston
  4. (d)Frederic Bastial
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : Karel Vasak initially started dividing human rights into three generations in 1979 at the International Institute of Human Rights in Strasbourg.

2018Assertion–Reason

Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and given the correct answer by using the code given below:

Assertion (A): It is the duty of the state to devise and implement a coherent and co-ordinated programme to meet its obligation of Sustainable Development.

Reason (R): Adherence to the principle of Sustainable Development is now a Constitutional requirement.

Code:

  1. (a)Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)✓
  2. (b)Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  3. (c)(A) is correct but (R) is wrong
  4. (d)(A) is wrong but (R) is correct
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : In the above question, option (a) is correct because according to this option both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

Rio Declaration - 27 principles were propounded in 1992. One of them is - According to the United Nations Charter and the principles of international law, the states have the sovereign right of exploiting their own resources in compliance with their own environmental and developmental policies. It is the duty of every state to ensure that the activities taking place within its jurisdiction or control do not cause any harm to the environment of other states or beyond the boundary of the national jurisdiction.

2018Assertion–Reason

Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and given the correct answer by using the code given below:

Assertion (A): The provisions concerning Human Rights run throughout the U.N. Charter like a golden thread.

Reason (R): Much of the credit for this goes to the determined job by non-governmental organisations at San Francisco Conference.

Code:

  1. (a)Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)✓
  2. (b)Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  3. (c)(A) is correct but (R) is wrong
  4. (d)(A) is wrong but (R) is correct
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : In the San Francisco Conference, representatives of many nations felt the need to help in eradicating the horrors of war to be the obligation of the international community and therefore they decided that - it would be an objective of the United Nations Charter to promote human rights, hence human rights have been given an important place in the United Nations Charter. Therefore it can be said that both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

2018Statements

Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct?

Under its terms of reference, the UN Commission of Human Rights was directed to prepare recommendations and reports on:

1. An International Bill on Human Rights

2. International Conventions or declarations on civil liberties, the status of woman, freedom of information and similar other matters

3. The protection of Minorities

4. The prevention of discrimination on the basis of race, sex, language or religion and other matters concerning Human Rights

Codes:

  1. (a)Only (a) is correct
  2. (b)Only (b) and (c) are correct
  3. (c)Only (a), (b) and (c) are correct

(d)

  1. (a),
  2. (b),
  3. (c)and
  4. (d)all are correct✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : The International Human Rights Commission has been directed to prepare recommendations and reports on the following items-

1. On the International Bill of Human Rights.

2. Conventions and international declarations on the status of civil liberties, women, freedom of information and other similar matters.

3. Protection of minorities.

4. Prohibiting discrimination on the basis of race, gender, language or religion.

2018Match the lists

Match List-I with List-II and give correct answer by using the code below:

List-I

A. Human Rights Council

B. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights

C. The International Convenant on Civil and Political Rights

D. World Conference on Human Rights, Venna

List-II

1. 1993

2. 2006

3. 1948

4. 1966

Code:

  1. (a)A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
  2. (b)A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
  3. (c)A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1✓
  4. (d)A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : Matched:

A. Human Rights Council - 2006

B. Universal Declaration of Human Rights - 1948

C. International Convention on Civil and Political Rights - 1966

D. World Conference on Human Rights, Vienna - 1993

2018Statements

Which of the following statement/statements is/are not correct?

1. The position of U.N. High Commissioner for Human Rights was created by the Economic and Social Council

2. The High Commissioner was to be appointed by the Secretary General subject to approval by the General Assembly

3. The term of the office of High Commissioner was five years

4. The High Commissioner's principal location would be in New York

Code:

  1. (a)Only 4 is not correct
  2. (b)1, 3 and 4 all are not correct✓
  3. (c)1, 2 and 3 are not correct
  4. (d)1, 2, 3 and 4 all are not correct
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : The post of the United Nations High Commissioner for Human Rights was created by the Economic and Social Council. It is also appointed by the Economic and Social Council. These are appointed for a tenure of 5 years. The principal place of the High Commissioner is in New York.

2018Match the lists

Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II and choose the correct answer from the code given below

List-I

A. Trail Smelter's Case

B. Basel convention

C. Earth Summit

D. Kyoto Protocol

List-II

1. Reducing transboundary movement of hazardous waste

2. Climate change

3. Preventing Pollution and environmental damage between Nations

4. United Nations Conference on Environment and Development

Code:

  1. (a)A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2✓
  2. (b)A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
  3. (c)A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
  4. (d)A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : Matched -

Trail Smelter Case - Prevention of pollution and environmental damage between nations.

Basel Convention - Reducing the movement of hazardous waste from one country to another.

Earth Summit - United Nations Conference on Environment and Development.

Kyoto Protocol - Climate Conference.

2018Match the lists

Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II and choose the correct answer from the code given below

List-I (Year of Adoption)

A. 1971

B. 1975

C. 1986

D. 1993

List-II (U.N. Declaration)

1. Declaration on the Right to Development

2. Vienna Declaration on Human Rights

3. Declaration on the Rights of Mentally Retarded Persons

4. Declaration on the use of scientific and technological progress in the interest

Code:

  1. (a)A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
  2. (b)A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
  3. (c)A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2✓
  4. (d)A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : Matched -

1971 - Declaration on the Rights of Mentally Retarded Persons

1975 - Declaration on the use of scientific and technological progress in the interest of peace and humanity

1986 - Declaration on the Right to Development

1993 - Vienna Declaration on Human Rights

2018Match the lists

Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II and choose the correct answer from the code given below

List-I (Article in UDHR)

A. Article 9

B. Article 13

C. Article 15

D. Article 17

List-II (Content in UDHR)

1. Everyone has the right to own property alone as well as in association with others. No one shall be arbitrarily deprived of his property

2. No one shall be subjected to aribitary arrest, detention or exile

3. Everyone has the right to freedom of movement and residence withing the borders of each state. Everyone has the right to leave any country, including his own and return to his country.

4. Everyone has the right to nationality. No one shall be arbitrarily deprived of his nationality and denied the right to change his nationality

Code:

  1. (a)A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
  2. (b)A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1✓
  3. (c)A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
  4. (d)A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : (Article in U.D.H.R.) - (Content in U.D.H.R.)

Article 9 - No person shall be subjected to arbitrary arrest, opposition or exclusion.

Article 13 - Every person has the right to freedom of movement and residence within the boundaries of every state. Every person has the right to leave any country, including his own country and return to his own country.

Article 15 - Every person has the right to nationality. No one shall be arbitrarily deprived of his nationality and shall not be denied the right to change his nationality.

Article 17 - Every person has the right to own property alone and with others. No one shall be arbitrarily deprived of his property.

2018Match the lists

Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II and choose the correct answer from the code given below

List-I (Section in the Protection of Human Rights Act 1993)

A. Section 37

B. Section 38

C. Section 39

D. Section 40

List-II (Content in the protection of Human Rights Act 1993)

1. Constitution of Special investigation teams

2. Power of Central Government to make rules

3. Protection of action taken in good faith

4. Members and officers to be public servants

Code:

  1. (a)A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
  2. (b)A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2✓
  3. (c)A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
  4. (d)A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : (Content of Protection of Human Rights Act 1993)

Section 37 - Constitution of Special Investigation Teams

Section 38 - Protection of action taken in good faith

Section 39 - Members and officers to be public servants

Section 40 - Power of Central Government to make rules

2018Statements

Which of the following Statements are correct?

1. Lawless v. Ireland was the first case decided by the European court of Human Rights

2. Ireland v. United Kingdom is related to Article 3 of European convention of Human Rights which deals with freedom form torture and inhuman or degrading Treatment

3. The U.N. Commission on Human Rights was replaced by Human Rights Committee in March 2006 by the General Assembly

4. The commission on the status of women is a functional commission of the Economic and Social council (ECOSGC) established in 1948

Code:

  1. (a)Only 1 and 2 are correct✓
  2. (b)Only 1 and 3 are correct
  3. (c)Only 2 and 3 are correct
  4. (d)Only 3 and 4 are correct
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) :

- Options 1 and 2 are correct because the first case decided on human rights was Lawless v. Ireland, European Court of Human Rights.

- Ireland v. United Kingdom is related to Article 3 of the European Convention on Human Rights.

Hence option (c) and D are wrong.

Right to Environment discourse includes

1. Right to Health

2. Right to Sanitation

3. Right to Clean Technology

4. Right to Free Speech

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 are true

(b) 2, 3 and 4 are true

(c) 1, 3 and 4 are true

(d) 1 and 2 are true whereas 3 and 4 are false

Ans. (a) : Right to Environment discourse under Article 21 of Indian Constitution includes the following:

(1) Right to Health

(2) Right to Sanitation

(3) Right to Clean Technology

2019

Which of the following Articles provides coverage for the intervention in domestic jurisdiction for the enforcement of human rights?

  1. (a)Article 2(5) of UN Charger
  2. (b)Article 2(6) of UN Charger
  3. (c)Article 2(7) of UN Charger✓
  4. (d)Article 2(8) of UN Charger
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : According to Article 2(7) of the United Nations Charter, nothing contained in this Charter shall authorize the United Nations to intervene in matters which are essentially within the domestic jurisdiction of any State or shall require the Members to submit such matters to settlement under this Charter; but this principle shall not prejudice the application of enforcement measures under Chapter 7.

2019

"Human dignity is the Quintessence of Human Rights". This has been stated by

  1. (a)Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer
  2. (b)Justice JS Verma✓
  3. (c)Justice Kuldeep Singh
  4. (d)Justice Ranganath Mishra
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : Justice J.S. Verma, judge of the Supreme Court of India, in the NCHRO case held that human dignity is the quintessence of human rights.

Preamble of the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 (NGT Act) does not mention about

(a) Johannesburg Conference

(b) Rio Conference

(c) Article 21 of the Constitution of India

(d) The Stockholm Conference

Ans. (a) : The Preamble of the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 mentions the following – for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources including enforcement of any legal right relating to environment and giving relief and compensation for damages to persons and property and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto and considering decisions taken at the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment held at Stockholm and the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development held at Rio de Janeiro and a judicial decision in India that the right to a healthy environment as part of the right to life under Article 21 of the Constitution, it is considered expedient to have a National Green Tribunal.

Dec 2020/June 2021 · Q83

Which one of the following is not the functions of Human Rights Council?

  1. (a)To promote Human Rights education and learning as well as advisory services
  2. (b)To decide issues without making any recommendations to the General Assembly✓
  3. (c)To work in close cooperation with the Government regional organization, National Human rights instructions and civil society
  4. (d)To serve as forum for dialogue on all Human rights issues
Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) To decide issues without making any recommendations to the General Assembly

December 2023 · Q138

Which of the following is part of first generation of Human Rights ?

(A) Right to Social Security

(B) Right to Liberty

(C) Equality Before Law

(D) Right to Self determination

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(E) Right to life

  1. (a)(A), (B), (D) Only
  2. (b)(B), (C), (E) Only✓
  3. (c)(C), (D), (E) Only
  4. (d)(A), (C), (E) Only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) (B), (C), (E) Only

June 2025 · Q52Match the lists

Match the following authors/editors with their respective books

List-I (Authors/Editors)

A. J. Donnelly & D.J. Wheeler

B. L. Rajamani & J. Peel

C. Karnika Seth

D. J. Gibson

List-II (Title of Books)

1. International Human Rights

2. The Oxford Handbook of International Environmental Law

3. Computers, Internet and New Technology Laws

4. Patenting Lives: Life Patents, Culture & Development

  1. (a)A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  2. (b)A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
  3. (c)A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV✓
  4. (d)A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Explanation: These authors are widely known for their scholarly works in their respective fields as matched.

31 Dec 2025 (Shift 1) · Q135Match the lists

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II LIST-I (International Instruments on Concept of Right to Development) LIST-II (Year)

A. Declaration on the Right to Development by the UN General Assembly I. 2000

B. Durban Declaration and Programme of Action II. 1993

C. Millennium Declaration III. 1986

D. Vienna Declaration and Programme of Action IV. 2001

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. (a)A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  2. (b)A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
  3. (c)A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II✓
  4. (d)A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

31 Dec 2025 (Shift 1) · Q136Sequence / order

Arrange the following in order of their coming into being/adoption/enactment (ascending order)

A. UN Convention on Rights of Persons with Disabilities

B. Americans with Disabilities Act

C. United Kingdom Disability Discriminations Act

D. The Persons with Disability Act (India)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. (a)B, C, D, A✓
  2. (b)A, B , C, D
  3. (c)C, B, D, A
  4. (d)A, C, D, B
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) B, C, D, A

June 2026 · Q129Match the lists

Match List I with List II LIST I LIST II

A. The Genocide Convention I. 1953

B. Convention on Crime of Apartheid II. 1948

C. Convention against Torture III. 1984

D. Convention on Political Rights of Women IV. 1973

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. (a)A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  2. (b)A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I✓
  3. (c)A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  4. (d)A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

Explanation: Matching each international convention in List I with its year of adoption by the United Nations General Assembly in List II:

• A. The Genocide Convention II. 1948 o The Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of the Crime of Genocide was adopted by the UN General Assembly on December 9, 1948.

• B. Convention on Crime of Apartheid IV. 1973 o The International Convention on the Suppression and Punishment of the Crime of Apartheid was adopted by the UN General Assembly on November 30, 1973.

• C. Convention against Torture III. 1984 o The Convention against Torture and Other Cruel, Inhuman or Degrading Treatment or Punishment (UNCAT) was adopted by the UN General Assembly on December 10, 1984.

• D. Convention on Political Rights of Women I. 1953 o The Convention on the Political Rights of Women was adopted by the UN General Assembly on March 31, 1953.

Topic 7Universalism and cultural relativism

1 questions · Open this topic on its own page

2019

The concept of Universalism is based on

1. Natural Theory

2. Theory of Rationalism

3. Theory of Positivism

4. Theory of Cultural Relativism

Choose the most appropriate option:

  1. (a)1 and 2
  2. (b)1, 2 and 3✓
  3. (c)1, 2, 3 and 4
  4. (d)3 and 4
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : The concept of Universalism is based on the following-

1- Natural Theory.

2- Theory of Rationalism.

3- Theory of Positivism.

Topic 8International Bill of Rights

24 questions · Open this topic on its own page

2012

Which one of the following is correct according to Article I of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948?

  1. (a)All human beings are born free and equal in rights
  2. (b)All human beings are born free, equal and dignity
  3. (c)All human beings are equal in dignity and rights✓
  4. (d)All human beings are born free and equal in rights and dignity
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : According to Article-1 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948 - All human beings are born free and equal in dignity and rights. They are endowed with reason and conscience and should act towards one another in a spirit of brotherhood.

2012

Which one of the following convention has neither interstate communication procedure nor individual communication procedure?

  1. (a)International Convention on Civil and Political Rights
  2. (b)International Convention on Economic Social and Cultural Rights
  3. (c)Convention on the Rights of child✓
  4. (d)Convention on the Rights of persons with Disabilities
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : The Optional Protocol to the Convention on the Rights of the Child was opened for signature and ratification by the United Nations General Assembly on 25 May 2000. This protocol came into force on 12 February 2002. The main objective of this protocol is - children below the age of 18 years shall not take part in armed conflicts.

2012

India is a not a party to-

  1. (a)International Convention on Civil and Political Rights
  2. (b)International Convention on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights
  3. (c)Convention on the Rights of Child
  4. (d)Optional Protocol to International Civil and Political Rights✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : India is a party to the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights, 1966 (ratified on 27 March 1979), International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights, 1966 (ratified on 27 March 1979), and the Convention on the Rights of the Child, 1989.

2012

The Committee on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights was established under ECOSOC Resolution No. 17 adopted on

1. 28 May, 1985

2. 30 May, 1985

3. 26 April, 1986

4. 24 May, 1986

  1. (a)1, 2 and 3 are correct✓
  2. (b)1, 3 and 4 are correct
  3. (c)2, 3 and 4 are correct
  4. (d)1, 3 and 4 are correct
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : ECOSOC Resolution No. 17/1985, (28 May 1985) was established under this. This resolution was adopted on 28 May, 1985. It has 18 members. They meet twice a year in Geneva. From India, Preeti Saran is currently a member. Headquarters - Geneva, Switzerland.

2013

"No one shall be subjected to arbitrary arrest, detention or exile."

Above law is in

  1. (a)Article 21 of the Indian Constitution
  2. (b)Criminal Procedure Code
  3. (c)Civil Procedure Code
  4. (d)Article 9 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : Under Article 9 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948, no one shall be subjected to arbitrary arrest, detention or exile. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights contains a total of 30 articles including the preamble, and the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948 came into force on 10 December 1948. For this reason, International Human Rights Day is celebrated every year on 10 December.

2013

'No one shall be subjected to arbitrary asset or detention.' Under which Article of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, this right has been declared?

  1. (a)Article 5 (b) Article 7
  2. (c)Article 8 (d) Article 9
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was issued by the United Nations on 10 December 1948. It contains a total of 30 articles including the preamble. According to its Article 9, no one shall be subjected to arbitrary arrest or detention.

2013

"Everyone has the right to recognition everywhere as a person before the law". This has been stated in which of the following Article of Universal Declaration of Human Rights?

  1. (a)Article 6 (b) Article 7✓
  2. (c)Article 8 (d) Article 9
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : According to Article 6 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, every person has the right to be recognized as a person before the law everywhere.

2014Match the lists

Match List-I containing Human rights and List-II containing related Articles of Universal Declaration of Human Rights, using the codes given below:

List-I

A. Rights to own property

B. Freedom of religion

C. Right to liberty and security of person

D. Right to privacy

List-II

1. Article 18

2. Article 9

3. Article 12

4. Article 17

Code:

  1. (a)A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
  2. (b)A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
  3. (c)A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
  4. (d)A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) :

(a) Right to own property - Article 17

(b) Freedom of religion - Article 18

(c) Right to liberty and security of person - Article 9

(d) Right to privacy - Article 12

2014

Article 6 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights provides for:

  1. (a)Right to life
  2. (b)Prohibition of slavery
  3. (c)Right to be recognised as a person before law✓
  4. (d)Equality before law
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : Article 6 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights provides that everyone has the right to be recognized as a person before the law.

2014

The International covenant on Economic, Social and cultural Rights came into force on:

  1. (a)3 January 1976✓
  2. (b)13 January 1976
  3. (c)30 June 1977
  4. (d)13 June 1977
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : The International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights came into force on 3 January 1976 and these rights are mentioned in Articles 22 to 27.

2014

The Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948 contains provisions relating to:

  1. (a)Operationalization of Human Rights✓
  2. (b)Establishment of Human Rights institutions
  3. (c)Establishment of Human Rights Committee
  4. (d)Conceptualization of Human Rights
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : The Universal Declaration of Human Rights 1948 was passed by the General Assembly on 10 December 1948. This Declaration is an important subject of a person in relation to human rights, its preamble has made it clear that every organ of the United Nations will try to recognize and implement the rights and freedoms mentioned in this declaration. This declaration has 30 articles, in which human rights have been mentioned in detail.

2016Statements

Which of the following statements are correct? Use the codes and answer.

1. Most of the rights of the Univeral Declaration of Human Rights are incorporated in Part III of our Constitution

2. Most of the rights of the Universlal Declaration of Human Rights are incorporated in Part-IV of our Constitution

3. Many of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights are included in Part-V of our Constitution

4. Few Universal Declaration of Human Rights are included in Part-XIII of our Constitution

Codes:

  1. (a)(1) and (3) only
  2. (b)(1) and (2) only✓
  3. (c)(1) and (4) only
  4. (d)(3) and (4) only
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : Most of the rights of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights 1948 have been incorporated in Part-3 and Part-4 of our Constitution.

2017

In which of the following case the Supreme Court after referring to International Convenant of civil and Political Rights and Universal Declaration of Human Rights observed that, "It is almost an accepted proposition of law that rule of customary to the Municipal Law shall deemed to be incorporated in the domestic law"?

  1. (a)M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
  2. (b)Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra v. State of U.P.
  3. (c)P.U.C.L. v. Union of India✓
  4. (d)Church of God (Full Gospels) in India v. K.K.R. Majestic Colony Welfare Association
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : The Supreme Court in P.U.C.L. v. Union of India 1997 S.C. had remarked that it is almost a well-established fact of law that a rule of customary international law which is not contrary to national law shall be deemed to be part of domestic law.

It was said in M.C. Mehta v. Union of India that the right to a healthy environment is a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Constitution.

2017Sequence / order

Which of the following has commented on the legal significance of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights thus, " The declaration is merely a statement of principles not a legally binding instrument; but it has become one of the best known international documents, and it has been often referred to in resolutions of the U.N., the specialised agencies, regional arrangements and other International Organisations, and in national constitutions. legislation and court decision. It is a beacon light for all mankind even though it has been honoured more often in the breach than in the observance"?

  1. (a)Starke
  2. (b)H. Lauterpacht
  3. (c)Oppenheim
  4. (d)Palmer and Perkins✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : Palmer and Perkins, stating the legal principles of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, said that it is not a legally binding document, but it has become one of the well-known international documents and is often referred to in resolutions of the United Nations, special agencies, regional arrangements and other international organizations and national constitutions, laws and decisions of courts. It is a beacon light for the whole humanity, even though its observance has been violated more.

Starke has called international law a weak law.

According to Oppenheim, a State is recognized only as an international person, and exclusively so.

According to H. Lauterpacht, if a State once acquires all the necessary elements of statehood, then it is the duty of all other States to grant recognition to the new State.

2017Match the lists

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:

List-I

A. Optional Protocol to the Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination

B. Declaration on the Elimination of violence women

C. Convention on the Elimination of All forms of Discrimation against Women

D. Declaration on the protection of women and children in Emergency and Armed conflict

List-II

1. Proclaimed by the U.N. General Assembly resolution 3318 (XXIX) of 14 December, 1974

2. Adopted and opened for signature, against ratification and accession by the U.N. General Assmebly resolution 34/180 of 18 December, 1979

3. Proclaimed by U.N. General Assembly resolution 48/104 of 20 December, 1993

4. Adopted by the U.N. General Assembly Resolution 54/4 of 6 October, 1999 and opened for signature, ratification and accession on 10 December, 1999

Code:

  1. (a)A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1✓
  2. (b)A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
  3. (c)A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
  4. (d)A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) :

(a) Optional Protocol to the Convention against Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination Against Women - Resolution 54/04 adopted by the United Nations General Assembly on 6 October 1999 and opened for signature, ratification and accession on 10 December 1999

(b) Declaration on the Elimination of Violence against Women - Resolution 48/04 proclaimed by the United Nations General Assembly on 20 December 1993

(c) Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination Against Women - Resolution 34/180 of the United Nations General Assembly of 18 December 1979, required for adoption and signature, ratification and accession

(d) Declaration on the protection of women and children in emergency and armed conflict - Resolution proclaimed by the United Nations General Assembly on 14 December 1974

2017Statements

Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct?

1. Optional Protocol to the Convention on the Rights of the Child on the involvement of Children in Armed Conflict was, adopted and opened for signature, ratification and accession by the United Nations General Assembly resolution 54/263 of 25 May, 2000

2. Worst forms of Child Labour Convention, 1999 (No. 182) was adopted on 15 June, 1999 by the General Conference of the International Labour Organization at its eighty-seventh session

3. Minimum Age Convention, 1973 (No. 138) was adopted on 26 August, 1973 by the General Conference of the International Labour Organisation at its Fifty-Eighth session

4. Convention on the Rights of the Child was adopted and opened for signature, ratification and accession by the United Nations General Council Resolution 44/25 of 20 November, 1989

Code:

  1. (a)1, 2 and 3 are incorrect
  2. (b)2, 3 and 4 are incorrect✓
  3. (c)1 and 2 are incorrect
  4. (d)1, 2, 3 and 4 are incorrect
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : It is correct that the Optional Protocol to the Convention on the Rights of the Child relating to the involvement of children in armed conflict was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly's resolution 54/263 on 25 May 2000, kept for signature, ratification and accession.

2019

Which of the following Articles of Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948 deals with civil and political rights?

  1. (a)Articles 1 and 2
  2. (b)Articles 3 and 21✓
  3. (c)Articles 22 and 27
  4. (d)Articles 28 and 30
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : Articles 3 and 21 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights 1948 provide for civil and political rights, which include:

(1) Right to life and personal security of person - Article 3

(2) Article 21 - Right to vote.

In which year the Commission on Status of Women was established by Economic and Social Council?

(a) 1946

(b) 1947

(c) 1948

(d) 1949

Ans. (a) : The Commission on the Status of Women was established by the Economic and Social Council on 21 June 1946. Its headquarters is in New York (U.S.A.).

2019

Which of the following is the composition of the International Bill of Human Rights?

1. Universal Declaration of Human Rights

2. International Covenant of Civil and Political Rights

3. The International Covenant of Economic, Social and Cultural Rights

4. The Optional Protocol to the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights

Choose the most appropriate option:

  1. (a)1, 2 and 3
  2. (b)1 and 3
  3. (c)1, 2, 3 and 4✓
  4. (d)1 and 4
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : International Bill related to Human Rights:-

1. Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948

2. International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights, 1976

December 2022 · Q68Match the lists

Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Human right Instruments)

List-II (year of Ratification/accessed)

A. International Convention on the Elimination of All form of Racial Discrimination (ICERD) I 1954

B. International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR) II 1968

C. Forced Labour Convention III 1979

D. Convention on the Rights of Child (CRC) IV 1992

I II

A. o I. 1954

B. II. 1968

C. III. 1979

D. IV. 1992

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. (a)A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  2. (b)A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  3. (c)A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV✓
  4. (d)A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

June 2025 · Q6

Which of the following articles incorporate the expression “right to life”?

A. Article 3 of UDHR, 1948

B. Article 6 of ICCPR, 1966

C. Article 9 of ICESCR, 1966

D. Article 3 of OP2 of ICCPR, 1989

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. (a)A and C Only
  2. (b)A and B Only✓
  3. (c)C and D Only
  4. (d)B and D Only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) A and B Only

Explanation: Article 6 of the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR) expressly states the right to life as inherent to every human being. Article 3 of the UDHR also supports this, but ICESCR and OP2 do not address it in the same manner.

31 Dec 2025 (Shift 1) · Q56Sequence / order

Arrange the following rights as they appear in Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948 (UDHR) (ascending order)

A. Rights relating to Freedom

B. Rights relating to Liberties of people

C. Rights relating to Rule of Law

D. Economic Rights

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. (a)C, B, A, D
  2. (b)A, B, C, D
  3. (c)B, A, C, D
  4. (d)C, A, B, D✓
Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) C, A, B, D

June 2026 · Q52Statements

Consider the following statements, relating to the State parties to ICCPR under Article 13(2), 1996

A. Primary education shall be optional and free for all

B. Secondary education in its different form shall be made generally available and accessible to all

C. Fundamental education shall be encouraged or intensified for those who have not received or completed the whole period of primary education

D. The material conditions of teaching staff shall be continuously improve

E. Right to education shall promote scientific progress, fellowship and affirmative action programme

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

  1. (a)A and B only
  2. (b)A, B and D only
  3. (c)B, C and D only✓
  4. (d)B, C, D and E only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) B, C and D only

Explanation: (Note: The question text contains typographical errors in citing the treaty and date. The right to education under Article 13(2) is enshrined under the ICESCR, 1966 [International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights], rather than the ICCPR). Analyzing the statements pursuant to Article 13(2) of the ICESCR:

• Statement A is Incorrect: Article 13(2)(a) dictates that "Primary education shall be compulsory and available free to all", not optional.

• Statement B is Correct: Article 13(2)(b) states that "Secondary education in its different forms, including technical and vocational secondary education, shall be made generally available and accessible to all by every appropriate means..."

• Statement C is Correct: Article 13(2)(d) provides that "Fundamental education shall be encouraged or intensified as far as possible for those persons who have not received or completed the whole period of their primary education."

• Statement D is Correct: Article 13(2)(e) provides that "The development of a system of schools at all levels shall be actively pursued, an adequate fellowship system shall be established, and the material conditions of teaching staff shall be continuously improved."

• Statement E is Incorrect: While Article 13(1) outlines general aims of education (such as promoting understanding, tolerance, and friendship), the specific clause of Article 13(2) enumerates sub-clauses (a) through (e) and does not list an "affirmative action programme" or scientific progress within that specific section. Thus, statements B, C, and D are the correct inclusions under Article 13(2).

June 2026 · Q80Statements

Consider the following statement under Right to Education under Article 26 of Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948

A. Elementary education shall be optional

B. Technical and professional education shall be made generally available

C. Education shall be free at elementary and fundamental stages

D. Higher education shall be equally accessible to all on the basis of Merit

E. Elementary education shall be compulsory

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

  1. (a)A and B only
  2. (b)A, C and D only
  3. (c)A, B, C and D only
  4. (d)B, C, D and E only✓
Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) B, C, D and E only

Explanation: Article 26(1) of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR), 1948 explicitly states:

"Everyone has the right to education. Education shall be free, at least in the elementary and fundamental stages. Elementary education shall be compulsory. Technical and professional education shall be made generally available and higher education shall be equally accessible to all on the basis of merit." Evaluating the statements based on Article 26(1):

• A. "Elementary education shall be optional" - INCORRECT: Article 26(1) provides that elementary education shall be compulsory, not optional.

• B. "Technical and professional education shall be made generally available" CORRECT: Explicitly declared in Article 26(1).

C. "Education shall be free at elementary and fundamental stages" - CORRECT:

Explicitly provided in Article 26(1).

• D. "Higher education shall be equally accessible to all on the basis of Merit" CORRECT: Explicitly provided in Article 26(1).

• E. "Elementary education shall be compulsory" - CORRECT: Explicitly provided in Article 26(1). Thus, statements B, C, D, and E are correct, which corresponds to Option (d).

•

June 2026 · Q122

Consider the following combination of and choose the correct combination

Provision of UDHR - Part III Indian Constitution

A. Prohibition of Slavery, Slave trade etc. Article 4 - Article 24

B. Right against arbitrary arrest and detention, Article 9 - Article 22

C. Right to freedom of Movement, Article 13(1) - Article 19(1)(d)

D. Right to life, liberty and security of person Article 3 - Article 21

E. Right to Effective Remedy Article 11 - Article 32

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. (a)A, B, C and E only
  2. (b)B, C and D only✓
  3. (c)A, C and D only
  4. (d)A, B, D and E only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) B, C and D only

Explanation: Evaluating each matching pair between the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR, 1948) and Part III (Fundamental Rights) of the Indian Constitution:

• Statement A - INCORRECT:

o UDHR Article 4 prohibits slavery and the slave trade. o In the Indian Constitution, Prohibition of Traffic in Human Beings and Forced Labour is under Article 23 (not Article 24, which specifically deals with the Prohibition of Employment of Children in Factories, etc.). Therefore, pairing Article 4 of UDHR with Article 24 of the Indian Constitution is incorrect.

• Statement B - CORRECT:

o UDHR Article 9: "No one shall be subjected to arbitrary arrest, detention or exile." o Indian Constitution Article 22: Provides protection against arbitrary arrest and detention in certain cases.

• Statement C - CORRECT:

o UDHR Article 13(1): "Everyone has the right to freedom of movement and residence within the borders of each state." o Indian Constitution Article 19(1)(d): Guarantees to all citizens the right to move freely throughout the territory of India.

• Statement D - CORRECT:

o UDHR Article 3: "Everyone has the right to life, liberty and security of person." o Indian Constitution Article 21: Protection of life and personal liberty.

• Statement E - INCORRECT:

o UDHR Article 8 (not Article 11) provides for the right to an effective remedy by competent national tribunals for acts violating fundamental rights, corresponding to Article 32 of the Indian Constitution. Article 11 of the UDHR deals with the presumption of innocence and non-retroactive criminal laws. Therefore, only statements B, C, and D are correct, corresponding to Option (b).

Topic 9Group rights – Women, children, persons with disabilities, elderly persons, minorities and weaker sections

27 questions · Open this topic on its own page

2012

International Women's Dayu is celebrated every year on

  1. (a)2nd March
  2. (b)4th March
  3. (c)6th March
  4. (d)8th March✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : International Women's Day is celebrated every year on 8th March.

2012

The 'Convention on Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination Against Women' was entered into force in the year.

  1. (a)1979
  2. (b)1981✓
  3. (c)1989
  4. (d)1992
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women, 1979. On 18 December 1979, the General Assembly adopted this Convention. This Convention came into force in 1981. It contains 30 articles. This Convention is also called the International Bill of Rights of Women. More than 180 countries are parties to this Convention.

Note - On 7 November 1967, the United Nations General Assembly adopted the Declaration on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women.

2013

Which of the following case relates to transfer of Tribal lands by Government to Non-tribal people?

  1. (a)Shri Manchegowda v. State of Karnataka, AIR 1984 SC 1151
  2. (b)Samatha v. State of Andhra Pradesh, AIR 1997 SC 3297✓
  3. (c)Suresh Lohiya v. State of Maharashtra, (1996) 10 SCC 397
  4. (d)Fatesang Gimba Vasava v. State of Gujarat, AIR 1987 Guj 09
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : Samatha v. State of Andhra Pradesh A. I. R. 1997 S. C. case relates to the transfer of tribal lands by Government to non-tribal people.

2013

The United Nations High Commission for Refugees was established in which of the following year by the General Assembly?

  1. (a)1951 (b) 1953✓
  2. (c)1955 (d) 1957
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : In 1951, the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees was established by the General Assembly. World Refugee Day is observed on 20 June.

2013

Gurupadaswamy Committee 1979 was constituted to look into the working conditions of:

  1. (a)Minorities
  2. (b)Women
  3. (c)Children✓
  4. (d)N.G.Os.
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : Gurupadaswamy Committee 1979 was constituted to look into the working conditions of children.

2014

Right to nationality, right to marry and right to found a family are the rights under

1. Only women rights

2. Social and cultural rights

3. Civil and political rights

4. Inherent rights

Code:

  1. (a)i, ii and iv/1, 2 and 4
  2. (b)ii, iii and iv/2, 3 and 4
  3. (c)ii and iii/2 and 3
  4. (d)iii/3✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : The right to nationality, the right to marry and the right to start a family are inherent rights (human rights).

2014Assertion–Reason

Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using codes given below:

Assertion (A): A refugee means any person who, owing to well-founded fear of being prosecuted for reason of race, religion, nationality, membership of a particular social group of political opinion, is outside the country of this nationality.

Reason (R): Because the United Nations Convention on the Refugees 1951 in its Article 1A says so.

Codes:

  1. (a)Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is right reason of (A)
  2. (b)(A) is wrong and (R) is right
  3. (c)(A) is right and (R) is wrong
  4. (d)Both (R) and (A) are wrong✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : Refugee law is a part of human rights law, this is clear in Article 14(1) of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights. According to this Article, every person of the world has the right to seek and enjoy asylum in other countries to escape persecution.

Refugee means a person who is outside his country due to the strong apprehension of being persecuted on the basis of his caste, religion, citizenship, membership of any specific social class or his political belief and is therefore unable to return to his country or is unwilling to return there due to the fear and apprehension of persecution."

2014

Which one of the following institutions gave suggestion for imposing environmental tax?

  1. (a)Amnesty International
  2. (b)World Water Institute✓
  3. (c)UNESCO
  4. (d)United Nations
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : World Water Institute had suggested to impose environmental tax.

2014

Section 3 of the protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 prescribes punishment for:

  1. (a)Enforcing economic disabilities
  2. (b)Civil disobedience
  3. (c)Enforcing religions disabilities✓
  4. (d)Enforcing political disabilities
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : Section (3) of the Protection of Civil Rights Act 1955 provides for punishment for promoting religious disability. Under this section, untouchability has been made punishable on religious grounds. By this, a person can be punished with imprisonment from one month to 6 months and a fine from Rs. 100 to Rs. 500 for preventing him from going to ghats, ponds or bathing places on religious grounds.

2014Match the lists

Match List-I with List-II in the light of Geneva Convention relating to the Treatment of Prisoners of War, using codes given below:

List-I

A. Categories of Prisoners to be treated as prisoner of war

B. Prisioners of war to be humanly treated

C. No physical or mental torture

D. Escape of prisoner of war

List-II

1. Article 13

2. Article 91

3. Article 4

4. Article 17

Code:

  1. (a)A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
  2. (b)A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
  3. (c)A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
  4. (d)A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : Matched list with regard to Geneva Convention:

Categories of prisoners to be treated as prisoners of war - Article 4

Prisoners of war to be treated humanely - Article 13

No physical or mental torture of any kind - Article 17

Escape of prisoners of war connection of factors - Article 91

2014

State of Kerala v. N.M. Thomas is about:

  1. (a)Religious minorities
  2. (b)Lingustic minorities
  3. (c)Area wise reservation
  4. (d)Backward class✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : The case of State of Kerala v. N.M. Thomas relates to backward class. The provision of Article 15 of the Indian Constitution relates to backward class. This is an important decision on the question of reservation, as a result of which the precedent rule of Devdas case and the rule of M.R. Balaji case that the maximum reservation will be 50% on the question was challenged. Later, in the Indra Sawhney case, the decision of Balaji was again applied and the precedent rule of Devdas case was also accepted with certain conditions.

2014

What is the main objective of the prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act, 2013? Give answer by using codes below:

1. To Prohibit employment of manual scavengers

2. To rehabilitate manual scavengers

3. To rehabilitate manual scavengers and their families

4. To rehabilitate manual scavengers only and not their families

Codes:

  1. (a)Only 1
  2. (b)Only 1 and 2
  3. (c)1, 2, and 3✓
  4. (d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : According to the Rehabilitation Act, 2013, the prohibition of employment as manual scavengers and their rehabilitation has the following objectives-

(i) Prohibition of employment as manual scavengers

(ii) Rehabilitation of manual scavengers

(iii) Rehabilitation of families of manual scavengers

2014

UNICEF was created by the UN General Assembly to help:

  1. (a)Children after World War I
  2. (b)Children after World War II in Europe✓
  3. (c)Children of Third World counties
  4. (d)Children suffering from malnutrition
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : The initial objective of establishing UNICEF was to provide food and health services to the children of the nations destroyed in the Second World War. It was established by the UN General Assembly on 11 December 1946. Headquarters is in New York.

2016

The UN Declaration on the Rights of Indigenous People was adopted by the General Assembly on

  1. (a)13th September, 2005
  2. (b)13th April, 2006
  3. (c)13th September, 2007✓
  4. (d)13th November, 2008
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : The UN Declaration on the Rights of Indigenous People was adopted by the General Assembly on 13 September 2007.

2016

Article 27 of the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights, 1966 recognizes.

  1. (a)Minority Rights✓
  2. (b)Political Rights
  3. (c)Civil Rights of Indigenous Persons
  4. (d)Voting Rights of Women
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : Article 27 of the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights, 1966 clarifies that in those countries where there are ethnic, religious or linguistic minorities, the persons belonging to these communities shall not be deprived of the right to enjoy their own culture, profess and practice their own religion, or use their own language with other members of their group. Thus, Article 27 grants recognition to minority rights.

2016

The convention relating to the status of Refugees was adopted by the United Nations on

  1. (a)28th January, 1950
  2. (b)20th July, 1950
  3. (c)28th July, 1951✓
  4. (d)30th November, 1952
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : The Convention relating to the Status of Refugees was adopted by the United Nations on 28 July 1951 at Geneva and came into force on 22 April 1954.

2017Assertion–Reason

Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the codes given below:

Assertion (A): Redemption of the damaged environment is a part of the process of sustainable development and as such polluter is liable to pay the cost of the individual suffers as well as the cost of reversing the damaged ecology.

Reason (R): "Polluter pays principle" is part of the enviornmental jurisprudence of this country.

Code:

  1. (a)(A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)✓
  2. (b)(A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
  3. (c)(A) is true, but (R) is false
  4. (d)(A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : Stockholm Conference adopted the Directive Principles on Environment 1972 in which Principle (4) explained the Polluter Pays Principle, according to which this principle means that the polluter shall bear the costs incurred in adopting measures to ensure that the environment is not in an acceptable condition by the public authorities.

According to this principle-

(1) Preventive measures are preferable to ceremonial measures.

(2) Environmental damage should be proved at the source level

(3) Payment from polluter

2019Sequence / order

Arrange the following enactments in chronological order enacted to provide social justice

1. Equal Remuneration Act

2. Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act

3. Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act

4. Maternity Benefit Act

Choose the correct option:

  1. (a)1, 2, 3, 4
  2. (b)2, 3, 1, 4
  3. (c)2, 4, 3, 1✓
  4. (d)4, 3, 2, 1
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : The correct chronological order of the Acts is as follows-

1. Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act 1956

2. Maternity Benefit Act 1961

3. Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act 1971

4. Equal Remuneration Act 1976.

December 2022 · Q76Sequence / order

Arrange the following cases in chronological order (Old to new)

A. Suresh Kumar Kaushal V/s Naz foundation

B. Navtej Singh Jauhar V/s union of India

C. Naz Foundation V/s Government of NCT of Delhi

D. Ankit V/s State of Haryana

choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. (a)A, B, C, D
  2. (b)B, C, D, A
  3. (c)C, A, B, D✓
  4. (d)D, E, A, B
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) C, A, B, D

December 2023 · Q139Match the lists

Match List - I with List - II

List - I Enactment

(A) The Civil Rights Act

(B) The Probation of offenders Act

(C) The Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act

(D) The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(1)

  1. (a)(А)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(1)
  2. (b)(A)-(1), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
  3. (c)(A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)✓
  4. (d)(A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III) List - II Year 1955 1956 (III) 1958 (IV) 1971
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)

June 2025 · Q29Sequence / order

Arrange the following legal instruments in chronological order (ascending)

A. Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act (India)

B. Optional Protocol to CEDAW

C. UN Principles for Older Persons

D. UN Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities

E. UN Declaration on Rights of Minorities

  1. (a)A, B, D, C, E
  2. (b)C, E, B, D, A✓
  3. (c)C, D, A, E, B
  4. (d)D, A, C, B, E
Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) C, E, B, D, A

Explanation: The correct chronological order is:

1. UN Principles for Older Persons (1991)

2. UN Declaration on Minorities (1992)

3. Optional Protocol to CEDAW (1999)

4. UNCRPD (2006)

5. RPwD Act (India, 2016)

Passage for June 2025 Q91–Q95

Read the following passage and answer the questions

Under English Law, 'Transsexual' cannot marry a partner of his or her original sex because sex was declared at birth and could not be changed by artificial intervention. Marriage could be entered into by one man and women only. In 2002, European Court of Human Rights declared that United Kingdom was in breach of Articles 8 and 12 of European Convention for failing to recognize transsexual's new gender. House of Lords declared in case of Bellinger v/s Bellinger that S 11 (c) of Matrimonial Causes Act, 1973 was incompatible with the Convention. The Legislature addressed this situation with Gender Recognition Act, 2004. This provided that transsexual over the age of 18 fulfilling medical criterion, living in other gender, or have changed their gender under law of an approved country can apply for gender recognition certificate. This will provide legal status necessary for acquired gender to marry a partner of transsexual's former sex. However, where the respondent was person of acquired gender prior to marriage, such a marriage is still voidable

June 2025 · Q91

Gender Recognition Act came up in which year?

  1. (a)2002
  2. (b)2003
  3. (c)1994
  4. (d)2004✓
Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) 2004

Explanation: The passage states that the Legislature addressed the situation with the Gender Recognition Act, 2004.

June 2025 · Q92

Failing to recognise new gender of a transsexual is contravention of which Articles of European Convention?

  1. (a)Article 8 and 12✓
  2. (b)Article 9 and 11
  3. (c)Article 1 and 2
  4. (d)Article 11 and 8
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) Article 8 and 12

Explanation: The European Court of Human Rights declared that failing to recognize the new gender violated Articles 8 (Right to Privacy) and 12 (Right to Marry).

June 2025 · Q93

Which is not correct about the traditional notion of 'transsexuals'?

  1. (a)Under traditional notion, transsexuals enjoyed full legal status✓
  2. (b)They could not marry a partner of their original sex
  3. (c)Sex could not be changed by artificial intervention
  4. (d)Marriage was valid between one man and one woman only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) Under traditional notion, transsexuals enjoyed full legal status

Explanation: Traditional English law did not provide full legal status to transsexuals, especially concerning marriage rights.

June 2025 · Q94

Which document provided legal status to acquired gender?

  1. (a)Order of Court
  2. (b)Declaration by Crown
  3. (c)Regulation 1 of European Convention
  4. (d)Gender Recognition Certificate✓
Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) Gender Recognition Certificate

Explanation: As per the passage, this certificate granted legal recognition to the acquired gender.

June 2025 · Q95

Which section of Matrimonial Causes Act, 1973 was incompatible with European Convention?

  1. (a)11(c)✓
  2. (b)12(a)
  3. (c)11(g)
  4. (d)1(c)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) 11(c)

Explanation: Section 11(c) was found incompatible with the European Convention in the case of Bellinger v. Bellinger.

June 2026 · Q74

Article 2 of the Convention Relating to the Status of Refugees, 1951 deals with

  1. (a)Principle of non-discrimination
  2. (b)Principle of non-refoulment
  3. (c)General Obligations of the Contracting States towards the refugees
  4. (d)General Obligations of the refugees towards the country in which he finds himself✓
Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) General Obligations of the refugees towards the country in which he finds himself

Explanation: Article 2 of the Convention Relating to the Status of Refugees, 1951 specifically deals with "General obligations" owed by the refugee:

"Every refugee has duties to the country in which he finds himself, which require in particular that he conform to its laws and regulations as well as to measures taken for the maintenance of public order." Thus, while the Convention largely mandates the rights and protections that States must extend to refugees, Article 2 outlines the reciprocal obligations of the refugee to obey the national laws and public order of the host country.

Topic 10Protection and enforcement of human rights in India – National Human Rights Commission, National Commission for Minorities, National Commission for Women, National Commission for Scheduled Castes, National Commission for Schedule Tribes and National Commission for Backward Classes

39 questions · Open this topic on its own page

2012

The term of the office of the Chairperson and Members of the NHRC under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 is

  1. (a)5 years from the date on which he enters the office or until he attains the age of 70 years whichever is earlier✓
  2. (b)4 years from the date on which he enters the office or until he attains the age of 70 years whichever is earlier
  3. (c)3 years from the date on which he enters the office or until he attains the age of 68 years whichever is earlier
  4. (d)5 years from the date on which he enters the office or until he attains the age of 68 years whichever is earlier
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : Under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, the provisions regarding the term of office of the Chairperson and Members of the National Human Rights Commission are given in Section 6(1). According to Section 6(1), the term of office of the person appointed as the Chairperson shall be 5 years from the date on which he assumes office or when he attains the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier.

2012

The Chairperson of National Commission on Minorities shall be deemed member of

  1. (a)Human Rights Council
  2. (b)Law Commission of India
  3. (c)National Human Rights Commission✓
  4. (d)International Law Commission
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : The National Commission for Minorities has been constituted under the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992. According to Section 3 of this Act, the Central Government shall constitute a National Commission for Minorities. This Commission shall have a Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and five members from the minority community. The Chairperson shall be the deemed member of the National Human Rights Commission.

2012

Indicate the order in which the following words appear in the definition of 'Human Rights' as given in Section 2(D) of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.

1. Life

2. Liberty

3. Equality

4. Dignity

Code:

  1. (a)1, 3, 2 and 4
  2. (b)2, 3, 4 and 1
  3. (c)1, 2, 4 and 3
  4. (d)1, 2, 3 and 4✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : According to Section 2(d) of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, "human rights" means the rights relating to life, liberty, equality and dignity of the individual which are guaranteed by the Constitution or embodied in the International Covenants and are enforceable by courts in India.

2012

Who is the Chairperson of NHRC?

  1. (a)Justice J.S. Verma
  2. (b)Justice K.G. Bala Krishnan✓
  3. (c)Justice A.S. Anand
  4. (d)Justice M.N. Venkatachalaiah
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : Currently the Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission is Justice (Retired) H.L. Dattu.

2013

In Indian Constitution, Civil and Political Rights given in its

  1. (a)Part II
  2. (b)Part III✓
  3. (c)Part IV
  4. (d)Part IX
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : Part 3 of the Indian Constitution is related to fundamental rights. Civil and political rights are given in its Articles 12-35. In case of violation, one can enforce one's rights through the Supreme Court of India under Article 32.

2013

Section 19 of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 provides protection to

  1. (a)Army only✓
  2. (b)Police only
  3. (c)Navy only
  4. (d)All of the above
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : The Protection of Human Rights Act 1993 has a total of 43 sections. Section 19 mentions the procedure regarding armed forces. According to this, the Commission can seek a report from the Central Government on the complaint of violation of human rights by members of the armed forces and the Central Government shall inform the Commission within 3 months.

2013

In which of the following cases the jurisprudential basis of the principle to award compensation for violating Human rights has been laid down by the Supreme Court?

  1. (a)Visakha v. State of Rajasthan
  2. (b)Meneka Gandhi v. Union of India
  3. (c)Ratlam Municipality v. Vardhichand
  4. (d)Nilabhati Behra v. State of Orissa✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : In the case of Nilavati Behra v. State of Orissa, the Supreme Court laid down the jurisprudential basis of the principle of compensation for violation of human rights. The Maneka Gandhi case is based on the principle of natural justice. The Vishakha v. State of Rajasthan case relates to sexual harassment at the workplace.

2014

The National Human Rights Commission can:

1. itself take action and punish those who violate human rights

2. recommend the government to take action

3. initiate proceedings in the court

4. join as a party to a case in the court involving violation of human rights

Codes:

  1. (a)1 and 2 are correct
  2. (b)2, 3 and 4 are correct✓
  3. (c)1, 2 and 3 are correct
  4. (d)3 and 4 are correct
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : According to the Protection of Human Rights Act 1993, the Commission can perform the following functions.

(1) Can recommend the Government to take action.

(2) Can institute a case in the court.

(3) Can join as a party in any case relating to violation of human rights in the court.

(4) Suo motu or on the application of an aggrieved person by any person

(a) Violation or its abetment of human rights

(b) Investigation on a petition for negligence of a public servant in preventing such violation

(5) To promote research in the field of human rights.

2014

Some of the human rights are contained in the Indian Constitution under:

  1. (a)Part III and Part IV-A
  2. (b)Part III and Part IV✓
  3. (c)Part IV and Part IV-A
  4. (d)Part II and Part IV-A
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : In Part (III) (Fundamental Rights) and Part (IV) (Directive Principles) of the Indian Constitution, some human rights have been incorporated.

2014

Which of the following court normally is/ are notified by the State Governments to act as Human Rights Court for speedy trial of offences violating Human Rights?

1. Munsiff Courts

2. Lok Adalats

3. Senior Civil Judge Court

4. Sessions Court

Codes:

  1. (a)i and iv/1, 2 and 4
  2. (b)i, iii and iv/1, 3 and 4
  3. (c)ii and iv/2 and 4
  4. (d)iv/4✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : Section 30 of the Protection of Human Rights Act 1993 provides that the State Government may, with the concurrence of the Chief Justice of the High Court, designate any Session Court of every district for the speedy trial of offences arising out of violation of human rights, as Human Rights Courts.

2014

The power of 'enquiry and investigation' was given to Human Rights Commission under the following sections of the protection of Human Rights Act, 1993:

1. Sec.13

2. Sec. 14

3. Sec. 9

4. Sec. 10

Codes:

  1. (a)i and ii/1 and 2✓
  2. (b)i and iii/1 and 3
  3. (c)ii and iv/2 and 4
  4. (d)iii and iv/3 and 4
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : Section 13 of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 provides that the Commission shall have all the powers of a civil court while inquiring into human rights related complaints, which a civil court has while trying any case under the Code of Civil Procedure. The above Act provides for the power of investigation of the Human Rights Commission under Section 14. Under this Section, the Commission may utilize the services of any officer of the Central Government or the State Government or any investigation agency for any investigation.

2014Match the lists

Match List-I with List-II in the light of Human Rights under the Constitution of India.

List-I (Case Law)

A. East Coast Railway v. Madhav Appa Rao

B. L.I.C. v. Professor Manubhai D. Shah

C. Vakil Prasad Singh v. State of Bihar

D. Aruna Roy v. Union of India

List-II (Principles)

1. Freedom of expression

2. Equality

3. Religious instructions

4. Speedy trial

Code:

  1. (a)A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3✓
  2. (b)A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
  3. (c)A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
  4. (d)A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : Matched list:

East Coast Railway v. Madhav Apparao - Equality

L.I.C. v. Manubhai D. Shah - Freedom of expression

Vakil Prasad Singh v. State of Bihar - Speedy trial

Aruna Roy v. Union of India - Religious teachings

2014Assertion–Reason

Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the code given below:

Assertion (A): The member state of United Nations Organisation have committed to promote and the respect for observance of Human Rights

Reason (R): The Human Rights are Inalienable, Natural, Inter-dependent and Indivisible. They are means to achieve human dignity.

Code:

  1. (a)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. (b)Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)✓
  3. (c)(A) is true, but (R) is false
  4. (d)(A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : In the preamble of the Charter of the United Nations and in Article 68, it was declared in respect of human rights that the member states of the United Nations will keep in mind their commitment to fundamental human rights and dignity and importance of human beings.

The same human right is the fundamental and other transferable right which is necessary for the life of man. Human rights are the rights of every human being only because he is human, whether he is of any nationality, race or caste, religion, sex.

2016

When a person is arrested by the police, they cannot keep the arrested person in their custody for more than

  1. (a)Twelve hours
  2. (b)Twenty four hours✓
  3. (c)Thirty two hours
  4. (d)Thirty four hours
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : When the police arrests a person, it cannot keep the arrested person in its custody for more than 24 hours, it has to be presented before the magistrate within 24 hours. Such provision is given in Article 22 of the Indian Constitution and Section 57 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.

2017Match the lists

Match List-I and List-II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below:

List-I (Provisions of Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993)

A. Removal of a Member of the Commission

B. Functions of the Commission

C. Procedure with respect to Armed Forces

D. Appointment of Chairperson and other Members

List-II (Relevant Sections)

1. Section 12

2. Section 4

3. Section 5

4. Section 19

Code:

  1. (a)A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
  2. (b)A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
  3. (c)A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2✓
  4. (d)A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) :

(A) Removal of a Member of the Commission - Section 5

(B) Functions of the Commission - Section 12

(C) Procedure with respect to Armed Forces - Section 19

(D) Appointment of Chairperson and other Members - Section 4

2017Match the lists

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:

List-I

A. National Environmental Tribunal

B. "Doctrine of Sic utere tuo ut alienum non leadas"

C. To stop and prevent the international traffic in dumping and resultant accumulation of toxic and dangerous products and wastes

D. Convention or climate change strenthened

List-II

1. Basel Convention, 1989

2. Rio Declaration

3. Kyoto Protocol, 1997

4. Principle 21 and 22 of Stockholm Declarations

Code:

  1. (a)A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
  2. (b)A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
  3. (c)A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3✓
  4. (d)A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) :

(A) National Environmental Tribunal - Rio Declaration

(B) 'Sic Utere Tuo Ut Alienum Non Ladas' Principle - Principle 21 and 22

(C) To stop and prevent international traffic in dumping and accumulation of toxic and dangerous products and wastes - Basel Convention 1989

(D) Convention on climate change strengthened - Kyoto Protocol 1997

2017

Section 2(d) of 'The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 defines, "human rights" means the rights relating to ............... of the individual guaranteed by the Constitution or embodied in the International Covenants and enforceable by courts in India. Fill in the blanks

  1. (a)Life, Liberty, Equality and Dignity✓
  2. (b)Life, Equality, Liberty and Dignity
  3. (c)Life, Equality, Dignity and Liberty
  4. (d)Life, Liberty, Dignity and Equality
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : Section 2(d) of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 defines that human right means the right of a person before the courts of India which is guaranteed by the Constitution of India or contained in any international convention, relating to life, liberty, equality and dignity.

2017

Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched with regard to National Human Rights Commission of India, under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993?

  1. (a)Section 3 - Appointment of chairperson and other members
  2. (b)Section 4 - Removal of a member of the commission
  3. (c)Section 5 - Member to act as chairperson in certain times
  4. (d)Section 6 - Term of office of members✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : Section 6 of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 has provided for the term of office of its members. According to Section 6 - The term of the person appointed to the post of Chairperson shall be 5 years from the time he assumes office or when he attains the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier, he shall be eligible to be re-appointed as a member.

Section 3 - Constitution of National Human Rights Commission

Section 4 - Appointment of Chairperson and members

Section 5 - Resignation and removal of Chairperson and members

2017

Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched with regard to the duration of the position of the members/chairperson of N.H.R.C. of India?

  1. (a)Justice S. Rajendra Babu - 2.4.2007 to 31.5.2009
  2. (b)Justice K.G. Bala Krishnan - 7.6.2010 to 11.5.2015
  3. (c)Justice Ms. M. Fathima Beevi - 3.11.1993 to 24.1.1997
  4. (d)Justice V.S. Malimat - 5.8.1994 to 12.10.1998✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : The correct pair of tenure of members/chairpersons of the National Human Rights Commission of India - Justice B.S. Malimat 15/08/1994 to 12/10/1998.

2018Statements

Which of the following statement/statements is/are not correct?

1. The chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission shall be who has been the Chief Justice of Supreme Court

2. The Chairperson and the other Members of National Human Rights Commissioner are appointed by the President of India after consultation with Prime Minister

3. Chairperson and other Members of National Human Rights Commission are eligible for re-appointment

4. The chairperson and the other Members of the Commission can be removed on the Recommendation of the Law Minister of India

Codes:

  1. (a)Only (a) is correct✓
  2. (b)(a) and (c) are correct
  3. (c)(a), (b) and (c) are correct

(d)

  1. (a),✓
  2. (b),
  3. (c)and
  4. (d)all are correct 1, 2, 3 and 4 all are correct
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : According to Section 4 of the Human Rights Act, the Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission shall be one who has been the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court. The Chairperson and the members of the National Human Rights Commission shall be appointed by the President on the recommendation of the committee. Section 5 prescribes a procedure for the removal of the Chairperson and the members, under which the Supreme Court can recommend the removal of the Chairperson and other members of the Commission on proven misconduct. According to Section 6, the members of the Human Rights Commission are eligible for reappointment.

2018Match the lists

Match List-I with List-II and give correct answer by using the code below:

List-I (Provisions)

A. Constitution of National Human Rights Commission

B. Constitution of State Human Rights Commission

C. Functions of the National Human Rights Commission

D. Procedure of the Commission

List-II (Sections of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993)

1. Section 10

2. Section 12

3. Section 3

4. Section 21

Code:

  1. (a)A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
  2. (b)A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
  3. (c)A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
  4. (d)A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : Matched:

Constitution of Human Rights Commission - Section 3

Constitution of State Human Rights Commission - Section 21

Functions of National Human Rights Commission - Section 12

Procedure of the Commission - Section 10

2018Statements

Which of the following statements are correct?

1. The Chairperson and Members the State Human Rights Commission shall be appointed by the president under his hand and seal

2. The Chairperson or a Member of a State Human Rights Commission may, by notice in writing under his hand addressed to the Governor, resign has office

3. The president of India may, by order, remove form office the chairperson or any member as the case may be, if adjudged an insolvent

4. On ceasing to hold office, a Chairperson shall be eligible for further employment under the Government of India

Code:

  1. (a)Only 1 and 2 are correct
  2. (b)Only 1 and 3 are correct
  3. (c)Only 2 and 3 are correct✓
  4. (d)Only 3 and 4 are correct
Answer & explanation

Ans. (c) : According to the Human Rights Act 1993-

1. The Chairperson and members of the State Human Rights are appointed by the Governor. (Section 22)

2. The Chairperson and members of the State Human Rights can resign from their post by giving written notice. (Section 23(1))

3. The President can remove the Chairperson or any member from his post on his declaration of insolvency. (Section 23(2))

4. The Chairperson shall not be eligible to work in any other post under the Government of India after the end of his tenure. (Section 24(3))

2018

The National Human Rights Commission in was established in India on:

  1. (a)12 October, 1993✓
  2. (b)22 November, 1993
  3. (c)25 November, 1993
  4. (d)2 December, 1993
Answer & explanation

Ans. (a) : National Human Rights Commission was established on 12 October, 1993 under the National Human Rights Protection Act 1993. Therefore, no option is correct.

2019

Human rights are defined in which of the following sections of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993?

  1. (a)Section 2(a)
  2. (b)Section 2(b)
  3. (c)Section 2(c)
  4. (d)Section 2(d)✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : Human rights mean such rights relating to life, liberty, equality and dignity of the individual that are guaranteed by the Constitution or embodied in the International Covenants and are enforceable by courts in India.

2019Sequence / order

Various legislations relating to Human Rights in India are given below. Arrange them in chronological order since 1955

  1. (a)1. Bonded Labour system (Abolition) Act 2. Protection of Civil Right Act 3. Immoral Trafficking (Prevention) Act 4. Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act
  2. (b)1. Protection of Civil Right Act 2. Immoral Trafficking (Prevention) Act 3. Bonded Labour system (Abolition) Act 4. Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act✓
  3. (c)1. Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act 2. Bonded Labour system (Abolition) Act 3. Protection of Civil Right Act 4. Immoral Trafficking (Prevention) Act
  4. (d)1. Bonded Labour system (Abolition) Act 2. Immoral Trafficking (Prevention) Act 3. Protection of Civil Right Act 4. Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act
Answer & explanation

Ans. (b) : The correct chronological order of legislations related to human rights in India since 1955-

1- Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955

2- Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956

3- Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976

4- Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986

2019

Which of the following factors are responsible for judicial activism of India

1. Denial of court access to the poor, downtrodden and underprivileged sections of the society who do not have sufficient means to approach the court

2. Malaadministration, misuse of public office and rampant corruption

3. Increasing social problems as environmental pollution, child labour, smoking in public places, pitiable conditions of prisoners and exploitation of women etc.

4. Gross violation of Human Rights

Choose the correct option

  1. (a)Only 1, 2 and 3
  2. (b)Only 2, 3 and 4
  3. (c)Only 1, 3 and 4
  4. (d)All 1, 2, 3 and 4✓
Answer & explanation

Ans. (d) : The following reasons are responsible for judicial activism in India-

1- Denial of court access to the poor, downtrodden and underprivileged sections of the society who do not have sufficient means to approach the court

2- Malaadministration, misuse of public office and rampant corruption

3- Increasing social problems as environmental pollution, child labour, smoking in public places, pitiable conditions of prisoners and exploitation of women etc.

4- Gross violation of Human Rights

June 2020 · Q12

The Chairperson of National Human Rights Commission shall be

  1. (a)Chief Justice of the Supreme Court✓
  2. (b)Chief Justice of a High Court
  3. (c)Judge of the Supreme Court
  4. (d)Chairpersons of National Commission of Women
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court

June 2020 · Q21

National Commission of Minorities was established under which of the following provisions

  1. (a)Article 328 of the Constitution
  2. (b)Article 328A of the Constitution
  3. (c)Section 3 of National Commission of Minorities Act, 1992✓
  4. (d)Article 280 of the constitution of India
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) Section 3 of National Commission of Minorities Act, 1992

Dec 2020/June 2021 · Q6Match the lists

Match List-I with List-II

I -II

List-I List-II

A. National Human Rights Commission (I) Article 338 -338

B. National Commission for Backward class (II) State to introduce regulatory regime in the National Interest

C. National Commission for Minorities (III) Power of recommend payment of compensation

D. National Commission for Scheduled Caste (IV) Article 338-B 338

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. (a)(A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  2. (b)(A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)✓
  3. (c)(A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
  4. (d)(A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

Dec 2020/June 2021 · Q94

The National Commission for Women shall perform some of the following functions

(1) Shall fund litigations involving issues affecting a large body of women

ce W

(2) Shall provide, financial assistance to all those who are self employed

(3) Shall impose punishment to those found involved in discrimination of women

(4) Shall impose punishment to those found involved in discrimination of women

(5) Shall investigate and examine all matters relating to the safeguards provided for women under the Constitution and other laws

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. (a)(1), (3), (5) only✓
  2. (b)(2), (4), (5) only
  3. (c)(1), (2), (4) only
  4. (d)(5), (1), (2) only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (a) (1), (3), (5) only

Dec 2021/June 2022 · Q24

The following can be appointed as the Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)

  1. (a)Only a person who has been the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
  2. (b)A person who has been the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court or a Judge of the Supreme Court✓
  3. (c)A person who has been the Chief Justice of a High court
  4. (d)A person who has been a Judge of the High court
Answer & explanation

Answer: (b) A person who has been the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court or a Judge of the Supreme Court

Dec 2021/June 2022 · Q77

National Commission for Backward Classes has been created through which Amendment to the Constitution of India?

ie"ve ?

  1. (a)100th Amendment
  2. (b)101st Amendment
  3. (c)102nd Amendment✓
  4. (d)103rd Amendment
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) 102nd Amendment

December 2023 · Q85Sequence / order

Arrange the following in chronological order of their Enactment

(A) Protection of Human Rights Act

(B) National Commission for Women Act

(C) 89th Constitutional Amendment Act

(D) National Commission for Minorities Act

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. (a)(A), (D), (B), (C)
  2. (b)(C), (B), (A), (D)
  3. (c)(D), (C), (B), (A)
  4. (d)(B), (D), (A), (C)✓
Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) (B), (D), (A), (C)

December 2024 · Q75

The functions of the National Commission for minorities is provided for under which section of the relevant statute ?

(A) Section 3

(B) Section 5

(C) Section 7

(D) Section 9

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. (a)(A) Only
  2. (b)(B) Only
  3. (c)(C) Only
  4. (d)(D) Only✓
Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) (D) Only

June 2025 · Q49Statements

Which of the following statements are correct?

A. The first National Commission for Women was constituted on 31.01.1992

B. National Commission for Backward Classes got constitutional status via 102nd Amendment

C. Ministry of Minority Affairs was carved out from Ministry of Social Justice

D. National Commission for Scheduled Tribes is under Article 338

E. Article 338A deals with Scheduled Castes

  1. (a)B, C, D only
  2. (b)C, D, E only
  3. (c)A, B, C only✓
  4. (d)A, C, E only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) A, B, C only

Explanation: • Article 338 deals with Scheduled Castes,

• Article 338A is for Scheduled Tribes.

• National Commission for Women was indeed established in 1992.

June 2025 · Q54Sequence / order

Arrange the following provisions of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 in the order of their appearance

A. Inquiry into complaints

B. Procedure with respect to armed forces

C. Investigation

D. Powers relating to inquiry

E. Statements made by person to the Commission

  1. (a)A, B, C, D, E
  2. (b)A, D, E, B, C
  3. (c)A, D, C, E, B
  4. (d)D, C, E, A, B✓
Answer & explanation

Answer: (d) D, C, E, A, B

Explanation: .

A. Inquiry into complaints (Section 17)

B. Procedure with respect to armed forces (Section 19)

C. Investigation (Section 14)

D. Powers relating to inquiry (Section 13)

E. Statements made by person to the Commission (Section 15)

31 Dec 2025 (Shift 1) · Q78

Setting up of the State Human Right Commission is provided under which Chapter of Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993?

  1. (a)Chapter X
  2. (b)Chapter II
  3. (c)Chapter V✓
  4. (d)Chapter IV
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) Chapter V

31 Dec 2025 (Shift 1) · Q123

What is the role of Secretary General of NHRC as reflected under Section 3 of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993?

  1. (a)Advisor of NHRC
  2. (b)Technical Member of NHRC
  3. (c)Chief Executive Officer of NHRC✓
  4. (d)Legal Member of NHRC
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) Chief Executive Officer of NHRC

June 2026 · Q103Statements

Consider the following statement relating to functions of NHRC under Protection of Human Right Act, 1993

A. NHRC may visit any jail or other institution under control of the State Government without intimation to State Government

B. Undertake and promote research in field of Human Rights

C. NHRC cannot intervene in any proceeding relating to violation of Human Rights

D. Review the factor including acts of terrorism that inhibit the enjoyment of Human Rights

E. NHRC cannot enquire into any matter which is pending before a State Commission or any other commission duty constituted under any law

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. (a)B and D only
  2. (b)A, B and C only
  3. (c)B, D and E only✓
  4. (d)A, B and D only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (c) B, D and E only

Explanation: Evaluating each statement according to the statutory provisions of The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993:

• Statement A - INCORRECT: Under Section 12(c) of the Act, the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) may visit any jail or other institution under the control of the State Government under intimation to the State Government (not without intimation).

• Statement B - CORRECT: Under Section 12(g) of the Act, one of the core functions of the NHRC is to undertake and promote research in the field of human rights.

• Statement C - INCORRECT: Under Section 12(b) of the Act, the NHRC is expressly empowered to intervene in any proceeding involving any allegation of violation of human rights pending before a court, with the approval of such court.

• Statement D - CORRECT: Under Section 12(e) of the Act, the NHRC is empowered to review the factors, including acts of terrorism, that inhibit the enjoyment of human rights and recommend appropriate remedial measures.

• Statement E - CORRECT: Under Section 36(1) of the Act (Matters not subject to jurisdiction of the Commission), the NHRC shall not inquire into any matter which is pending before a State Commission or any other Commission duly constituted under any law. Therefore, statements B, D, and E are correct, which corresponds to Option (c).

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